How can you write that I started out with a strict no-change position when again and again I have distinguished my view from that? Although it’s in poor taste to quote oneself, I have to wonder why I bothered to write any of the following:
. . . it is certainly a “change” to go from acting on one’s inclinations to not acting on them. . . .
But so far there’s no clear or compelling evidence that people can change their sexual orientation (i.e., the pattern of their predominant attractions) through deliberate efforts.
About gay men and lesbian women changing, I had two things to say. First, that changing one’s behavior is significant and worthwhile, but it doesn’t qualify as changing one’s orientation. . … Secondly, I did not say that changing one’s orientation is impossible: my belief is that there is no clear or compelling evidence that such a change can be brought about deliberately.
What I do doubt is that the changes they claim to have experienced came about by any effort on their part.
Again, my suggestion is not that change is impossible, only that there’s no overwhelming evidence that it is possible to choose to exchange one sexual orientation for another. . …
I don’t want to belittle the changes that all three of these paths represent, but none of them amount to a change in orientation.
If you reread the posts carefully, and make allowances for some sloppiness on my part (it’s not like I’m writing a dissertation here!), you’ll see that my position throughout has been not that people can’t change their behavior or identity, not that sexual orientation never changes, but that
there is no evidence that it is possible to change one’s sexual orientation through deliberate efforts.
About the anger thing, I backed off the comment because it was the easiest way to keep the thread moving. If you refer again to my exact words, you’ll see that I wrote
. . .even if someone has his or her inclination toward anger well under control, the inclination is still there and it makes good sense to say he or she is still irascible.
As you can see, the antecedent in the conditional refers to the person’s inclination toward anger, so what follows in the consequent was said
under the assumption that the person still has such an inclination. In particular, it is a mistake to read this statement as implying that a person with an inclination toward anger will always have it. In any case, I had no intention of implying such a thing, and the main point I was getting at is if a condition is defined by having an inclination, then necessarily one will have the condition as long as the inclination persists.
About the men vs. women thing, I don’t know how I came momentarily to forget Lisa Diamond’s work on sexual fluidity in women. Again, I’m not writing a dissertation here.
Finally, it appears you haven’t answered my last question. Is it really true that being in a condition such that one’s sexual attractions are predominantly toward members of the same sex is so unspeakably terrible that it would be appropriate to despair if it turned out the condition was permanent?