F
fakename
Guest
What happened to me was that an impulse made me do something wrong but the impulse was so strong that it made me do it with full consent and knowledge.
Is that fully culpable or not, since it seems that my full consent and etc. was caused by a previous flare of emotions/will-o-the-wisp?
Is that fully culpable or not, since it seems that my full consent and etc. was caused by a previous flare of emotions/will-o-the-wisp?