Dearest Father Kimel,
Permit me to inject something into the conversation as an Oriental. As you might know, the doctrine of Divine Justice is part of the Oriental Patrimony, not just the Latin. So I hope I can shed some light on the matter from an Oriental perspective that might not come across that well from a Latin perspective.
I must strongly disagree with your statement that “Christ’s mercy triumphs over justice” for the very reason that Christ is the source of both mercy and justice. It is only secular society that makes a false dichotomy between the virtues of mercy and justice, as if they were opposed to each other. This, I believe, is an unfortunate side-effect of Protestant society wherein the term “Justice” is equated with retribution and vengeance (“Sinners in the hands of an angry God” lore). But “Justice” in the divine order is not about retribution or vengeance - satisfaction and penance, yes, but not retribution and vengeance.
JUSTICE taken as such refers to nothing more nor less than this - a quality which renders what is due. The question is, what is it that is due? Here we need to delve into the notion of ORIGINAL JUSTICE. According to Catholic thought, Original Justice consists of the possession of the Sanctifying Grace with which God created our first parents (this is not a modern Catholic interpretation by the way, but has ALWAYS been the Catholic teaching).
So when Catholic scholars speak of God’s Justice being met, from St. Anselm down to today, they are not referring to some sort of sheer legal requirement, but of the essence of deification - acquiring (or rather, re-acquiring) the holiness that God intends FOR US. This is what was lost, and this is what is due - the Sanctifying Grace. God’s justice is not about retribution or vengeance, but the means by which we BECOME HOLY. This is exactly what Scripture tells us, is it not - if we were not His Sons, we would not be chastised. Father, you need to study the essence of the difference between what the Catholic Church taught at Trent regarding Divine Justice over and against what the Reformers taught. EO often criticize the Catholic Church for its legalism regarding its doctrine of Divine Justice, but the EO criticism is utterly misplaced for it is constantly mistaking the Protestant doctrine of pure legal satisfaction for the true Catholic doctrine of deification/sanctification.
Marduk, your comments are always thoughtful and instructive. Thank you. But it’'s not clear to me that your invocation of original justice and sanctifying grace actually clarifies the problem of the temporal punishment of sin. We are, after all, speaking now of souls who have died in a state of grace and thus in a state of communion with the Holy Trinity. They do not need to acquire sanctifying grace, as this grace already inhabits and informs their souls. So what precisely is the temporal punishment of sin? What is the debt that this punishment satisfies? Why are forgiven, reconciled sinners punished by God after they die?
Let’s do a thought experiment. Let’s pretend we are now living in 1955. Vatican II hasn’t happened yet. The Catholic Catechism hasn’t been published yet. Ecumenical dialogue between the Catholic Church and other Christian Churches hasn’t happened yet. I come to you and ask you the two questions posed above. What will you tell me?
Earlier in this thread (#256) I quoted Fr Martin Jugie on purgatory. Do you agree or disagree with what he wrote? If you disagree, on the basis of what authority? My guess is that you will turn to St Thomas Aquinas. I also quoted Philip Quinn’s exegesis of St Thomas. He writes: “Sin deserves punishment because it is a transgression of the order of divine justice,
and so some sort of compensation must be paid if the equality of justice is to be restored. If the sinner pays any part of this compensation, he suffers, willingly or unwillingly, something contrary to what he would wish, because he has been too indulgent to his own will in transgressing God’s laws (I-II 87, 6).
Punishment for sin suffered unwillingly is purely penal.”
Does this sound anything like sanctification and theosis as understood by Eastern Orthodoxy? I admit that the juridical nature of the language may be misleading me, but please note one critical point that Quinn makes: “According to Aquinas, it would not be unjust for God to free man from sin without any satisfaction being made.” God could, if he so choose, simply dispense with satisfaction altogether. How could this possible, if we are talking about the healing and repair of the soul, which of course is not dispensable? This suggests to me that St Thomas is in fact speaking of a punishment that is retributive and penal in nature. It only becomes beneficial and salutary if the afflicted voluntarily embraces it as God’s will. Here is the analogy:
I steal a car. I am arrested. The car is restored to the owner. I confess to my crime and am authentically repentant. I even offer to make restitution to the owner of the car for the inconvenience I caused him. But still I am sentenced to serve five years in the state penitentiary in order to fulfill the requirements of justice. The judge could have simply commuted the sentence to time already served, but he chose otherwise. Why? Because I deserve to be punished. Because it is my desire to become and be a good citizen, I embrace the punishment and serve my time. Hopefully I’ll be a better person when I finally get released.
Does this analogy misrepresent the pre-Vatican II understanding of purgatory and the temporal punishment of sin? Quinn may have gotten St Thomas wrong, but his interpretation appears to be supported by
Bryan Cross’s exegesis of Aquinas also. Why not just take the juridical language at face value? A debt is a debt. You can either compel the debtor to pay it or you can forego the payment.
I suspect that Aquinas is more complicated, interesting, and nuanced than presented above, but at least one can see why many pre-Vatican II Catholics, including theologians, have understood the temporal punishment of sin in penal terms. This penal construal seems to be dominant, for example, in the Baltimore Catechism. Perhaps a medicinal/therapeutic understanding is hidden behind the juridical language, but if it is, may we not be excused for not seeing it?
Thought experiment concluded.
