R
Rau
Guest
I don’t get your point. We can’t assert an act is (morally) evil without being informed of the moral content, which may not reside in the physical acts alone. In what terms may I describe an act (with moral meaning) without addressing “conditions”?But it’s the conditions at the time that dictate whether an act is moral or not. And hence whether it was evil. You will not be able to give an example of a killing that is a moral evil without describing the conditions at the time. It would be literally impossible.
So there is no theological stand-alone definition of a morally evil killing. You are simply taking the conditions under which the act was comitted and then, post hoc, declaring it to be evil. And declaring it to be so based entirely on the conditions. Nothing else. And this is what we all do. Whatever beliefs we have, whatever religion we profess, we all do exactly the same.
There are, I admit, some purely religious beliefs that are stand-alone. Contraception for one. Masturbation for another. But I don’t see those as moral problems in the first place.
The declaring of an act of murder morally evil is not arbitrary as you suggest. We declare an act immoral because it meets the tests. You may feel the structure of the tests or the criteria are arbitrary.
In theology, “theft” is immoral always. There is a reason why acts that physically appear to be theft are not so classified - it’s not arbitrary.
In your earlier post, you defined the word theft around a limited set of conditions. The moral or theological definition incorporates more moral content than the meaning you attach to the word.