B
bobolink
Guest
I need an answer quickly. Basically, why is it that abortion incurs latae sententiae excommunication, but sexual abuse such as rape does not?
I don’t understand this myself. Both are mortal sins, and both separate a person from the Church. But why is one excommunicable but the other not?
I understand there is one argument for excomm and that is that it is a penalty for an offense to show the gravity of that offense, such as attempted women’s ordination. People might not take that seriously so it is excommunicable. But with abortion and sex abuse, both are mortal and serious sins and everybody can easily know that, so why the different approach?
Why is abortion excommunicable but rape not?
This story is relevant to the discussion: examiner.com/atheism-in-los-angeles/doctor-who-performed-abortion-on-9-year-old-rape-victim-excommunicated
I don’t understand this myself. Both are mortal sins, and both separate a person from the Church. But why is one excommunicable but the other not?
I understand there is one argument for excomm and that is that it is a penalty for an offense to show the gravity of that offense, such as attempted women’s ordination. People might not take that seriously so it is excommunicable. But with abortion and sex abuse, both are mortal and serious sins and everybody can easily know that, so why the different approach?
Why is abortion excommunicable but rape not?
This story is relevant to the discussion: examiner.com/atheism-in-los-angeles/doctor-who-performed-abortion-on-9-year-old-rape-victim-excommunicated