No, the premise is that there is nothing caused that does not have a cause. The conclusion is that there can only be one being which is uncaused (God), which is the same as concluding that nothing else can exist which does not have a cause. This is the same as the premise. This is circular reasoning unless one can support the premise with evidence.
you’re off the mark here, i’m afraid…
your version of the premise, “there is nothing caused that does not have a cause” is simply and straightforwardly
not synonymous with “nothing else can exist which does not have a cause”.
more abstractly, (x)(Cx
http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/writing/matimp.gif (
http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/writing/existq.gify)Cyx) is not logically equivalent to (
http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/writing/existq.gifx)
(~Cx
http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/writing/matimp.gif (~Cy
http://www.earlham.edu/~peters/writing/matimp.gif (x=y)).
in other words, the proposition “for any thing that exists, if that thing is caused, then that thing is caused by something (else)”, is not synonymous with “if there is a thing that is uncaused, then for anything else that is uncaused, then those things are identical”.
look, the form of aquinas’ proof is the following:
- there are some things in the world that are changing;
- things that are changing are caused to change (causal principle);
- if something could change itself, it would need to be both changed and not changed at the same time and in the same respect.
- therefore, nothing changes itself;
- but there cannot exist an infinite regress of changers and things changed;
- therefore there is at least one changer that is itself unchanged.
the conclusion (6) is clearly not synonymous with any of the other premises, so your charge of circular reasoning doesn’t go through.
michael_legna:
But as we have seen throughout this discussion this premise is not proven, just accepted based on common experience and observation of the macroscopic world
…just like these propositions that most of us just accept and for which there is no proof:
a) “there are other minds”;
b) “the past exists”;
c) “there is a mind-independent reality”;
d) “our senses are reliable”.
the causal principle, it seems, is in extraordinarily good epistemic company.
michael_legna:
But modern observations show that it should give us pause to claim there are no uncaused causes.
and this is exactly where you keep slipping up: there are no actual
observations of “causeless events” - there are simply observations of events for which there are
no observed causes. again, completely different beasts, i’m afraid.
the claim that there are acausal subatomic transactions is a
philosophical claim, plain and simple; it is a conclusion that is drawn using certain philosophical assumptions, and
not simply an immediate, pretheoretical grasp of experimental data. isn’t that obvious to you? how could “not seeing” a cause ever be
prima facie evidence that no cause exists in an epistemological enterprise (i.e. science) that is
based on the search for the cause of every event it studies?