M
Mike_O
Guest
I’ve always found this passage a bit strange. It reads along the lines of (off the top of my head): “And the Lord was appeased of the evil which He would have done.”
First, all treatises on God that I have ever read assert his unchangeable nature; He is unaffected by time and space. Because He is outside of time, His Will is preternal also. His Will exists now outside of time and is always. Prayer cannot change the will of God, therefore, which makes Moses’ prayer puzzling insofar as the Lord was “appeased” of His intention. How, exegetically, is this possible?
Second, the Lord, as perfect good, is incapable of evil. Evil is a perversion of good. Hatred is a perversion of love. God is perfect good and perfect Love. This is an additionally troubling aspect of this passage.
My final question for any apologist regarding this passage and others throughout Exodus is the manner in which God communicates to Moses. God is not corporeal. He is spiritual Being. But in Exodus Moses apparently sees the back parts of God. In what manner does God communicate with Moses, and how does Moses hear a voice from God who is Spiritual Being?
Thank you to anyone who can reply with the answer. If possible please avoid speculation in lieu of actual replies in line with the Magisterium.
First, all treatises on God that I have ever read assert his unchangeable nature; He is unaffected by time and space. Because He is outside of time, His Will is preternal also. His Will exists now outside of time and is always. Prayer cannot change the will of God, therefore, which makes Moses’ prayer puzzling insofar as the Lord was “appeased” of His intention. How, exegetically, is this possible?
Second, the Lord, as perfect good, is incapable of evil. Evil is a perversion of good. Hatred is a perversion of love. God is perfect good and perfect Love. This is an additionally troubling aspect of this passage.
My final question for any apologist regarding this passage and others throughout Exodus is the manner in which God communicates to Moses. God is not corporeal. He is spiritual Being. But in Exodus Moses apparently sees the back parts of God. In what manner does God communicate with Moses, and how does Moses hear a voice from God who is Spiritual Being?
Thank you to anyone who can reply with the answer. If possible please avoid speculation in lieu of actual replies in line with the Magisterium.