Exodus 32:7-14 question

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raystacy1

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In verse 14 it says the following: “And the Lord repented of the evil which he thought to do unto his people.”

How can it say this if God can’t do any evil?
 
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That is just one translation. The word in Hebrew is וַיִּנָּ֣חֶם way·yin·nā·ḥem comfort self, ease one’s self, repent, A primitive root; properly, to sigh, i.e. Breathe strongly; by implication, to be sorry, i.e. (in a favorable sense) to pity, console or (reflexively) rue; or (unfavorably) to avenge (oneself) – comfort (self), ease (one’s self), repent(-er,-ing, self).

Another translation says “God was appeased” So because of Moses’ appeal, God did not destroy the Israelites, so you can say that he was appeased or “repented” or appeared to change his decision.
 
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In verse 14 it says the following: “And the Lord repented of the evil which he thought to do unto his people.”

How can it say this if God can’t do any evil?
This is likely a translation issues. The NABRE says “punishment” instead of evil, which is likely what was meant by “evil” in this context.
 
Thank You. I used the NRSV which I thought was more traditional to the Hebrew language. I also understand that repent means to turn away from, but the evil part through me off.

I actually first read this in a Theology book and this confused me when I read it.
 
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How can it say this if God can’t do any evil?
The Hebrew word רַע (ra) is often translated as “evil,” as for instance in Gen 2:9, “the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.” But it doesn’t always mean “evil” in the theological sense. Here in Ex 32:14 the meaning is more like “harm”: The Lord had been planning to cause harm to the children of Israel, as a punishment for their wrongdoing, but Moses intercedes on their behalf and the Lord relents.
 
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