Explain the Vulgate PLZ

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What is the authority of the Latin Vulgate? Is it considered a divinely inspired and/or perfect translation like some KJV onlyists think about the KJV? Does the church teach infallibly that all of it’s readings are correct and none of the verses included are alien to the original text? Are such alien verses considered inspired/infallible (In or out of the Vulgate)?
 
Vulgate means common text or version. The old testament was written in Hebrew and the new testament was written in Greek.

St. Jerome was a lawyer in the 4th century and was commissioned by Pope Saint Damasus
to translate the Bible (which was still the old testament and new) into the common language for the people, which was at the time Latin. Thus the translated text became known as the Latin Vulgate Bible or translation.

Hope this helps and I hope I have my facts straight. I remember hearing all this last week when it was the feast of St Jerome September 29th.

Paul
 
There is a difference between being doctrinally error free and having an error free translation. The Vulgate is free from teaching errors. The importance of a perfect translation is always the goal but its not necessarily achieved nor is it declared as a rule of faith. The goal in translation is to turn one lanuage into another and carry as much of the meaning over as possible.
 
Vulgate means common text or version. The old testament was written in Hebrew and the new testament was written in Greek.

St. Jerome was a lawyer in the 4th century and was commissioned by Pope Saint Damasus
to translate the Bible (which was still the old testament and new) into the common language for the people, which was at the time Latin. Thus the translated text became known as the Latin Vulgate Bible or translation.

Hope this helps and I hope I have my facts straight. I remember hearing all this last week when it was the feast of St Jerome September 29th.

Paul
I’ll just go into slightly more detail.

In 382, Pope Damasus commissioned his secretary and protege St. Jerome to revise the Latin translation of the New Testament and the Psalms which were used by Christians in Rome by checking Greek texts. When Damasus died in 384, Jerome left Rome for good because of his unpopularity with the local clergy. After travelling for some time, he ended up in Palestine and settled in Bethlehem along with a few friends that went along with him. There, supported by his friends, he spent the rest of his life in incessant literary activity until he died in 420. It was during this last period of his life that his friends asked him to translate Old Testament books, mainly from the Hebrew (but at times also from Aramaic and Greek), which he did with great gusto. It was originally supposed to be just a private project of his, but his translations of OT books somehow leaked into public view, sparking a huge controversy amongst the Latin-speaking Christian world, which up to that time had mainly relied on the Septuagint as a source text, and resulting in St. Augustine writing to Jerome upbraiding him for his decision to translate from the Hebrew.

Eventually, however, his translation and revision works were compiled together along with other books that Jerome did not work on (to complete the set, as it were). This collection soon gradually supplanted all the Latin versions that were used by different local churches in the West, so that by the Middle Ages (think something like the 13th century), people began calling this collection the ‘common (as in ‘commonly-used’) version’ or versio vulgata, the name which was formerly reserved for the Septuagint (which was once the ‘common version’ throughout Christendom).
 
=ThePuppyTurtle;9843486]What is the authority of the Latin Vulgate? Is it considered a divinely inspired and/or perfect translation like some KJV onlyists think about the KJV? Does the church teach infallibly that all of it’s readings are correct and none of the verses included are alien to the original text? Are such alien verses considered inspired/infallible (In or out of the Vulgate)?
From the Catholic Encyclopedia

I SUGGEST you read the entire article.🙂

newadvent.org/cathen/15515b.htm

The Latin text of the Sacred Scriptures had existed from the earliest times of Christianity. The translator or translators were unknown to St. Augustine and St. Jerome; but the former says that the old Latin version had certainly come “from the first days of the Faith”, and the latter that it “had helped to strengthen the faith of the infant Church.” Made and copied without any official supervision these western texts soon became corrupt or doubtful and by the time of St. Jerome varied so much that that doctor could declare that there were almost “as many readings as codices.” It was this that as Richard Bentley, writing to Archbishop Wade, declares, “obliged Damasus, then Bishop of Rome, to employ St. Jerome to regulate the last revised translation of each part of the New Testament to the original Greek and to set out a new edition so castigated and corrected.” This St. Jerome did, as he declares in his preface “ad Graecam Veritatem, ad exemplaria Graeca sed Vetera.”

At the present day scholars are practically agreed as to the competence of St. Jerome for the work given him by Pope St. Damasus. He, moreover, had access to Greek and other manuscripts, even at that time considered ancient, which are not now known to exist; he could compare dozens of important texts, and he had Origen’s “Hexapla” and other means of determining the value of his material, which we do not possess. It is obvious that the pure text of St. Jerome must form the basis of any critical version of the Latin Bible, and, what is more, that it must be taken into account in any critical edition of the Septuagint Greek version of the Old Testament and the various Greek texts of the New Testament, no manuscript copies of which are older than St. Jerome’s Latin translation made on then ancient copies. Richard Bentley, the great scholar, as long ago as 1716, saw the importance of St. Jerome’s translation. “'Twas plain to me,” he writes, “that when that copy came first from that great Father’s hand, it must agree exactly with the most authentic Greek exemplars; and if now it could be retrieved, it would be the best text and voucher for the true reading out of several pretended ones.” Substantially, no doubt, the present authentic Clementine text represents that which St. Jerome produced in the fourth century, but no less certainly it, the printed text, stands in need of close examination and much correction to make it agree with the translation of St. Jerome. No copy of the actual text is known to exist; and the corruptions introduced by scribes, etc., in the centuries posterior to St. Jerome, and even the well intentioned work of the various correctors, have rendered the labours of trying to recover the exact text from existing manuscripts both difficult and delicate. This, however, is the work which must be done as the first step in the revision of the Vulgate. It is consequently the aim of the present commission to determine with all possible exactitude the Latin text of St. Jerome and not to produce any new version of the Latin Scriptures. Of course it is altogether another matter to determine how far St. Jerome was correct in his translation: to settle this will no doubt be the work of some future commission.
 
There is a difference between being doctrinally error free and having an error free translation. The Vulgate is free from teaching errors. The importance of a perfect translation is always the goal but its not necessarily achieved nor is it declared as a rule of faith. The goal in translation is to turn one lanuage into another and carry as much of the meaning over as possible.
Could I get a citation on where it is said that the Vulgate is free from teaching errors?
 
I don’t know about you guys, but this stuff really blows me away! To think of all these great people working on this through all these centuries, and being so careful to preserve the Word of God for us…

I read my NAB, RSV, KJV, DR, and all the rest, and I thank God for those who have put it faithfully into a form that I can understand, and can be assured of its being true to the Gospel.

It was my understanding that Jerome used the Septuagent to translate from. Did he use the Hebrew manuscripts as well?
 
To emphasize one point that has been overlooked here, The scriptures are considered to be inerrant only in their original language. Translating into another language poses problems as rarely do the literally translated words convey the same thought in two languages. Translating a work from one translation into a third one compounds the problem. Thus the desire to translate from the earliest language texts to keep errors to a minimum. There is also the problem of idioms and transferring their meaning into modern language. Here is an example. If I were to say, It is raining cats and dogs" People familiar with that idiom would know that it was raining very hard. But someone, maybe 2,000 years from now whould have no clue and would think that felines and canines were literaly falling out of the sky. So the translator must also take this into consideration and translate the idea behind the words themselves.
 
I don’t know about you guys, but this stuff really blows me away! To think of all these great people working on this through all these centuries, and being so careful to preserve the Word of God for us…

I read my NAB, RSV, KJV, DR, and all the rest, and I thank God for those who have put it faithfully into a form that I can understand, and can be assured of its being true to the Gospel.

It was my understanding that Jerome used the Septuagent to translate from. Did he use the Hebrew manuscripts as well?
He did - at least for the protocanonical books, but it is also thought that for most of the time he was informed by the Greek while translating the Hebrew. The one time he did stray from the Septuagint proved to be a disaster.

Fun trivia: Jerome had once made a translation of OT books from the Septuagint (again, due to private request rather than official order), but he claims to have eventually lost most of it due to fraud. It was during this time that he became increasingly dissatisfied with the Greek OT, so when his friends asked him to do a translation from the Hebrew next he seems to have become very excited.
 
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