S
Shlomey
Guest
So, I was discussing some things with a sedecavantist (I know, I know). His arguments were quite weak. However, I did research on one thing that - fortunately he did not ask! - I am still unable to find a good answer to:
It is about the fact that frére Roger - a reformed protestant - has received Holy Communion from both Pope John Paul II and Pope Benedict XVI.
According to Canon Law:
So is there something I am missing here? It is quite difficult to understand now why some priests are (imho RIGHTLY) criticized for allowing protestants to Communion while the same things are happening amongst the supreme prelates.
Nevertheless, the Communion-issue is just one part of it.
The more pressing issue which I have no answer for is the fact that Pope Benedict XVI said of frére Roger upon his death:
Is he implying that frére Roger is in heaven?
As far as I am concerned, frére Roger seems quite intelligent and knows of the Catholic faith. If I recall correctly, Cardinal Walter Kasper even defended the fact that he was allowed to partake in the Communion because he was somewhat very connected to Catholicism.
But then I have to reconcile that with:
Pope Pius XII:
a) the exception to “extra Ecclesiam nulla salus” is in the case of invincible ignorance
b) frére Roger was anything but invincibly ignorant
c) the Pope basically says he is in heaven
Can someone please explain this?
It is about the fact that frére Roger - a reformed protestant - has received Holy Communion from both Pope John Paul II and Pope Benedict XVI.
According to Canon Law:
I checked on EWTN and the answer was pretty much that for protestants to be admitted to Communion §4 ought to be the case. Frére Roger however supposedly partook in the Holy Communion regularly. I believe Tony Blair also was given the Body & Blood of Christ - eventhough a protestant.Can. 844 §1. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments licitly to Catholic members of the Christian faithful alone, who likewise receive them licitly from Catholic ministers alone, without prejudice to the prescripts of §§2, 3, and 4 of this canon, and ⇒ can. 861, §2.
§2. Whenever necessity requires it or true spiritual advantage suggests it, and provided that danger of error or of indifferentism is avoided, the Christian faithful for whom it is physically or morally impossible to approach a Catholic minister are permitted to receive the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick from non-Catholic ministers in whose Churches these sacraments are valid.
§3. Catholic ministers administer the sacraments of penance, Eucharist, and anointing of the sick licitly to members of Eastern Churches which do not have full communion with the Catholic Church if they seek such on their own accord and are properly disposed. This is also valid for members of other Churches which in the judgment of the Apostolic See are in the same condition in regard to the sacraments as these Eastern Churches.
§4. If the danger of death is present or if, in the judgment of the diocesan bishop or conference of bishops, some other grave necessity urges it, Catholic ministers administer these same sacraments licitly also to other Christians not having full communion with the Catholic Church, who cannot approach a minister of their own community and who seek such on their own accord, provided that they manifest Catholic faith in respect to these sacraments and are properly disposed.
§5. For the cases mentioned in §§2, 3, and 4, the diocesan bishop or conference of bishops is not to issue general norms except after consultation at least with the local competent authority of the interested non-Catholic Church or community.
So is there something I am missing here? It is quite difficult to understand now why some priests are (imho RIGHTLY) criticized for allowing protestants to Communion while the same things are happening amongst the supreme prelates.
Nevertheless, the Communion-issue is just one part of it.
The more pressing issue which I have no answer for is the fact that Pope Benedict XVI said of frére Roger upon his death:
[AUG. 17, 2005 (Zenit.)]“Frère Schultz is in the hands of eternal goodness, of eternal love; he has attained eternal joy,” the Holy Father added. “He invites and exhorts us to be faithful laborers in the Lord’s vineyard, also in sad situations, certain that the Lord accompanies us and gives us his joy.”
Is he implying that frére Roger is in heaven?
As far as I am concerned, frére Roger seems quite intelligent and knows of the Catholic faith. If I recall correctly, Cardinal Walter Kasper even defended the fact that he was allowed to partake in the Communion because he was somewhat very connected to Catholicism.
But then I have to reconcile that with:
Pope Pius XII:
Frére Roger had all the knowledge he needed. A man so close to Catholicism is exempted from this? If so, then perhaps we should not even preach anymore as that would leave non-Catholics an assurance to salvation.“In the aftermath of the controversy, the Archbishop of Boston, Richard Cushing, received a letter of clarification from the Holy Office. This letter, dated August 8, 1949, is important for its explanation of the necessity of the Church: she is necessary for salvation by divine command, not by intrinsic necessity. The Church, as Christ’s mystical body, is the sole ark of salvation, but direct, formal membership in her through the sacraments is only the ordinary means of salvation. In other words,** knowledge of the Church and of her Founder is required of anyone for whom is to be considered necessary for salvation**.” (Catholic Encyclopedia, p.862, Reverend Peter Stravinskas, Our Sunday Visitor, Inc., Huntington, Indiana, 1991)
. There was talk of a possible conversion to Roman Catholicism, but in early July, a note from the spokesman of the Holy See, Joaquin Navarro-Valls, noted that this **“is an exceptional case, which can in no way be considered as a change in Rome’s position in the subject of intercommunion”. **
xaviermissionaries.org/M_Life/NewsArchive/EuropeNews/Fra_MemoryRoger1.htmAs for frère Roger, before the ceremony, it is said that "it was not possible to give communion to Schutz, of whom his deep catholic faith is well known”.
I may be mistaken here and I realy need someone to clarify this for me. Thus far all I gather is:“Whosoever, therefore,** knowing that the Catholic Church was made necessary **by God through Jesus Christ, would refuse to enter her or to remain in her could not be saved” (Lumen Gentium, 14).
a) the exception to “extra Ecclesiam nulla salus” is in the case of invincible ignorance
b) frére Roger was anything but invincibly ignorant
c) the Pope basically says he is in heaven
Can someone please explain this?