S
Soulstorm
Guest
I do not wish to argue, only to understand. Why does God’s actions for our sinfulness change so drastically from the Old Testament to the New Testament?
In the Old Testament God provided a great many supernatural advantages to his Chosen People for their faithfulness. Some examples are collapsing Jericho’s walls through prayer, freeing the Hebrew from slavery with the plagues, destroying Soddom and Gorromoth with divine force, and many other examples of direct intervention.
Then as the New Testament came about suddenly God’s gifts became much more subtle and for the most part were gifts granted to individuals rather than direct interaction of God with the people of the ancient world.
I ask this because anti-theists use this as their rhetoric to claim that what happened in the Old Testament were just falsehoods made by ignorant tribes and that as civilization became more stable in the time of the New Testament it was harder to claim a whole city was destroyed by God’s angels when multiple Historians are around to record events.
In the Old Testament God provided a great many supernatural advantages to his Chosen People for their faithfulness. Some examples are collapsing Jericho’s walls through prayer, freeing the Hebrew from slavery with the plagues, destroying Soddom and Gorromoth with divine force, and many other examples of direct intervention.
Then as the New Testament came about suddenly God’s gifts became much more subtle and for the most part were gifts granted to individuals rather than direct interaction of God with the people of the ancient world.
I ask this because anti-theists use this as their rhetoric to claim that what happened in the Old Testament were just falsehoods made by ignorant tribes and that as civilization became more stable in the time of the New Testament it was harder to claim a whole city was destroyed by God’s angels when multiple Historians are around to record events.