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Guest
I would first say that James is not talking about appearances before men, but about salvation, justification before God. That’s why he says earlier, “What shall it profit, my brethren, if a man say he hath faith, but hath not works? Shall faith be able to save him?” The implication is obviously that faith without works is unable to save a man.Here is what I was taught about faith and works:
In English the terms righteousness and justice are different words, but in both the Hebrew Old Testament and the Greek New Testament there is only one word group behind these two English terms…. James is using the word justified in a different sense from the way Paul uses it
God says a person is justified (demonstrated or shown to be righteous to other men) by works and not by faith alone."
God says a person “a person is justified (declared to be righteous by God) by faith alone and not by work.”
How do Catholics respond to this?