Faith vs. law

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Could someone please comment on the apparent contradiction found in the prayers and readings from “Christian Prayer” this morning (Feb. 4, 2011)? The reading before the Responsory is from Galatians 2:16…“Knowing that a man is not justified by legal observance but by faith in Jesus Christ, we too have believed in him in order to be justified by faith in Christ, not by observance of the law; for by works of the law no one is justified.” Then in the final prayer we pray “Lord, fill our hearts with your love as morning fills the sky. By living your law may we have your peace in this life and endless joy in the life to come.” Thanks in advance for your help!
 
I think the distinction is between the old law (torah) and the new law (Christ)

“The Torah prepared the Hebrews for the acceptance of the New Law is attested by the work of Christ, who came not to destroy but to perfect it.” newadvent.org

The letter to the Hebrews is particularly helpful in explaining the superiority of the new covenant over the old law covenant. cheers
 
Could someone please comment on the apparent contradiction found in the prayers and readings from “Christian Prayer” this morning (Feb. 4, 2011)? The reading before the Responsory is from Galatians 2:16…“Knowing that a man is not justified by legal observance but by faith in Jesus Christ, we too have believed in him in order to be justified by faith in Christ, not by observance of the law; for by works of the law no one is justified.” Then in the final prayer we pray “Lord, fill our hearts with your love as morning fills the sky. By living your law may we have your peace in this life and endless joy in the life to come.” Thanks in advance for your help!
Hi.

The excerpts you noted are part of a larger (and popular) discussion in Paul’s letter involving the “faith vs. works” arguments between Catholic and Protestant faiths. It’s easy to take such verses out of context when “soundbited”–that is, forgetting that these are sentences from a complete letter, which should be read in its entirety for the full message.

In this letter, Paul notes of he and Titus’s work in teaching the Word to Gentiles–non-Jewish peoples who are subject to practicing Judaic culinary and devotional laws such as avoiding pork, and circumcision. With the arrival of the New Covenant established by Christ, the practice of Judaic law (customs) were no longer required for the first Christians. But some of these Jewish Christians tried to make the Gentiles abide by Old Covenant practices anyway, which prompted Paul to act.

The problem was so challenging that even Peter himself had been partial. He ate with Gentiles but then moved away from them when Jewish Christians arrived so as to look more “Jewish.” Paul called him on this error (2:11-14).

Paul goes on to say in his letter that Christians are not justified by practicing the *customs *of the Old Covenant (Judaic law), but only in practicing the customs of the New Covenant (love of Christ through imitation) (2:16).

No contradiction exists. The New Covenant has its 'laws" (Sacred Tradition) and the Old Testament had their laws. It’s not required for Christians to uphold Judaic law to be a Christian.

Protestants twist these passages to imply that Catholic traditions are also fruitless. Paul states quite the opposite: The Christian Catholic traditions have effectiveness for faith, and no longer Judaic traditions. Protestants suggest that Catholic rituals are “law” and therefore worthless. For more on how this premise is flawed, see this article from This Rock magazine that goes through these objections.
 
Could someone please comment on the apparent contradiction found in the prayers and readings from “Christian Prayer” this morning (Feb. 4, 2011)? The reading before the Responsory is from Galatians 2:16…“Knowing that a man is not justified by legal observance but by faith in Jesus Christ, we too have believed in him in order to be justified by faith in Christ, not by observance of the law; for by works of the law no one is justified.” Then in the final prayer we pray “Lord, fill our hearts with your love as morning fills the sky. By living your law may we have your peace in this life and endless joy in the life to come.” Thanks in advance for your help!
This is a difficult and often times confusing issue. Spencerian has already excellently addressed the particulars, I wish to address a more general understanding.

In Mt 22:36-40 Christ tells us that there are 2 Laws upon which all else is based. These are the great Laws of Love - Love of God and Love of neighbor. So this is “Gods Law” which, “By living your law may we have your peace in this life and endless joy in the life to come.”

In the Old covenent one’s standing was based in large part on how faithfully he observed the law of Moses. But over time, legalism came to replace a true understanding and embracing of the spirit behind the Law. Jesus speaks of this problem many times in the NT when talking to, or about, the Pharisees.
Even in today’s church we see people who feel they are fully justified by obedience to church ordinances but seem to miss the spirit of those ordinances and, while obedient to the “law” (mass attendance etc), they have not incorporated the great Laws of Love into their lives.

So the Law we seek to obey is God’s Law of Love, in faith and hope…For only in this way can we please God. Not by blind adherance to rules with no change of heart.

Peace
James
 
Could someone please comment on the apparent contradiction found in the prayers and readings from “Christian Prayer” this morning (Feb. 4, 2011)? The reading before the Responsory is from Galatians 2:16…“Knowing that a man is not justified by legal observance but by faith in Jesus Christ, we too have believed in him in order to be justified by faith in Christ, not by observance of the law; for by works of the law no one is justified.” Then in the final prayer we pray “Lord, fill our hearts with your love as morning fills the sky. By living your law may we have your peace in this life and endless joy in the life to come.” Thanks in advance for your help!
Where does Jesus ever tell us that faith in Him is sufficient for salvation? He instructs people all the time not to sin anymore so the fact that He implores people to live sinless lives people have to know what constitutes a “sin” so by that act alone w can infer the existence of some kind of “law”. Jesus also says He didnt come to abolish the law but to fufill it. The 10 commandments make a good list.
 
So the Law we seek to obey is God’s Law of Love, in faith and hope…For only in this way can we please God. Not by blind adherance to rules with no change of heart.
Even under the old law, carrying out the requirements of the Law without an interior submission to God was worthless - this is one of the oft-repeated warnings of the prophets. (1 Sam 15, Ps. 51, Hosea 6, just to point out a few examples). It wasn’t that God didn’t want them to perform the sacrificial rituals He had commanded (that would make Him a liar. . . ) but that the sacrifices offered without the interior obedience and the exterior actions of mercy were an affront to Him - an hypocrital act that made a mockery of the Covenant.
 
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