Dear brother Malfunkshun,
I think the error in your point of view is your idea that primacy is/was obtained from secular or even ecclesiastical powers. The doctrine of primacy has a more primordial origin than that - it came from Christ and the Apostles, and was passed down through the apostolic succession. Since the inception of the Church by Christ, there has always been one who held/holds the primacy. That is the model on which the Church is based, and that is the model reflected in the OT as well. Give heed to the Scriptural warning reflected in the episode between Moses and Korah. Christ himself stated that he would set ONE SERVANT over his household, and that this unique servanthood would exist when He returns (see Matthew 24:45ff).
Dear Marduk:
Firstly, that verse you refer to isn’t a statement, it is a question:
“Who then is the faithful and wise servant, whom the master has put in charge of the servants in his household to give them their food at the proper time?” Matthew 24:45
Interpretation of Bible verses has always been a tricky business. I can see how that verse might be interpreted to mean that The Pope should have primacy over the bishops of the church, but I don’t see any evidence that this is in fact what the verse means. In fact, if we’re interpreting Bible verses here, then it seems as though it might even be questioning whether or not primacy should be given to a Pope in the first place, since the verse is a question.
Were those particular Bible verses (Matthew 24:48-51) ever brought up by an ecumenical council of bishops with the decision on their collective meaning; that one Pope should have primacy over all of the bishops and should have the power to make arbitrary decisions for the Church without consulting a proper representative council of bishops?
If Matthew 24:45 does in fact tell us that a Pope should hold supreme authority over the church, then Matthew 24:48-51 seems to warn against that power being abused or corrupted; a common form of corruption being the use for political purposes:
“But suppose that servant is wicked and says to himself, ‘My master is staying away a long time,’ and he then begins to beat his fellow servants and to eat and drink with drunkards. The master of that servant will come on a day when he does not expect him and at an hour he is not aware of. He will cut him to pieces and assign him a place with the hypocrites, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” Matthew 24:48-51
The seven ecumenical councils were held in order to make decisions regarding issues such as these; to flesh out and develop the early Church and to answer the inevitable questions which arose during its beginnings.
If you can provide evidence that a council of bishops did, in fact, decide that Matthew 24:45 was to be taken to mean that one Pope should hold ultimate authority over the Church, then I’ll have some serious thinking to do. However, if that one Bible verse is the only support you have for the legitimacy of papal primacy, then I’d say that’s a pretty weak argument.
In Oriental Orthodoxy, as well, the notion of primacy (whether on the level of the Metropolitan See or the Patriarchal See) has always been regarded as being handed down from Christ and the Apostles - nothing so novel as certain EO would have it, that the primacy was institued by secular powers.
The early Byzantine patriarchs never tried to deny Rome her seat at the head of the five churches. She deserved special recognition; being the capitol city, and possibly the Roman patriarch’s opinion might have even held a certain amount of respect and therefore influence among other patriarchs, but this is the limit of the notion of primacy. Anything beyond this, like it or not, WAS instituted by secular powers, and you have provided no real evidence that papal primacy, as practiced by the Roman Pope, was in any way legitimately organized or recognized by the Church.
In Christ,
Ash