L
latinmasslover
Guest
But the BC doesn’t say it’s an automatic sacrilige. We have to receive the Eucharist prepared, right? Well, even in the CCC, fasting is part of the preparation. Sacrilige is mortally sinful, but in order to sin mortally the three conditions must apply.The document doesn’t have to say it trumps others; anyone who understand how the Church works would know that a universal document coming from Rome would take precedence over a document issued by a local jurisdction.
And anyone who knows the process of a nihil obstat would know that it is possible that mistakes could be made. I have not said that the Baltimore Catechism is wrong; I have questioned whether or not it is entirely correct. aneone familiar with both catechisms would know that the CCC is mre nuanced than the BC. “Wrong” is an interesting word; perhaps it would be better to say that the BC lacks nuance. Lacking nuance would put it in the position of making a statement that either overstates or understates the issue; and thus it could be both right and wrong at the same time. In other words, it is possible that the BC is right that breaking a fast could be a sacrilege, particularly if it was done with contempt of the Eucharist; and it could be wrong in that it implies that any break of fast is automatically a sacrilege.
One cannot commit the sin of sacrilege if one does not intend sacrilege, as intent is part of the necessity of sin. The CCC seems to be defining sacrilege as contempt for (etc) the sacrament. Black and white answers fail to address grey issues.
If one is aware that fasting isn’t a choice for the reception of the Eucharist (aside from medical exceptions), realizes that they’ve broken the fast, and *receives anyway * (again, knowing that they are not prepared as the Church directs) then they sin mortally and commit the sin of sacrilige.
If it sounded as though I were implying that it’s a sacrilige no matter what, I apologize for the ambiguity.