C
Catholic2003
Guest
I’ve given a precise journal reference in post #81, and three canon law commenary references in post #31. Do you need the ISBN’s of the commentaries to make the references less nebulous?You have yet to show that a source prior to 1994, other than nebulous references to opinions of canon lawyers, and some 1978 document you’ve never seen.
I don’t have the text. I’ve given you the precise reference in post #100. You are more than free to look it up yourself. My local university library does not carry it.If you can give me that text, I’ll be happy to get it translated.
Do I take it that you really do think it would have been okay to receive communion twice in one day before Nov. 27, 1983, in violation of the 1973 rule? Or does your innovative legal reasoning only apply to the issue of altar girls?Why would the Holy Father make any reference to prohibitions on female altar servers when there was no need, if the PCILT had decided in 1978 that the new canon would allow them. Why not grease the skids for the new permission?
This is like someone saying they will only accept that Munificentissimus Deus (on the Assumption of Mary) is infallible if there is an infallible papal document explicitly stating that it is infallible. The requirement that you are insisting on here is one of your own making, not one from Church teaching or canon law. Thus, the fact that it cannot be met proves nothing.Until you can produce something authoritative (i.e., with the approval of the Holy See) other than the 1994 letter regarding the permissive nature of 230.2, I would agree…but you have yet to do that.
Sacrae disciplinae leges, the apostolic constitution by which Pope John Paul II established the new Code of Canon Law, did not give bishops the option of following the new code prior to Nov. 27, 1983, nor did it give bishops the option of sticking with the old code after that date if they did not like some of the new provisions.
So now you are accusing the PCILT of deliberately lying in their 1992 authentic interpretation (i.e., saying “Affirmative” when the truthful answer was “Negative; but we’re such wimps at the Vatican that we’re giving into massive liturgical disobedience”) and of fraudulently abusing their curial position to enact what was in really new canon law when they have no authority to do so. Since Pope John Paul II personally approved this authentic interpretation, I guess that means you think that he also conspired in this fraud against the Church.Why would the Pope allow this now? Because American bishops, not acting in communion with the Holy See, had already been permitting this to such a degree that to not permit it now would have caused extreme divisiveness.
What an incredibly low opinion you hold of every position of authority in the Catholic Church, be it bishop, curia, or pope! I find it amazing that you think the Holy Spirit has abandoned the Church so.
I hope you can understand that if I am to choose between the pope, the curia, the bishops, and the canon lawyers (whose accreditation comes from the Vatican) on the one hand, and you and a few others on this forum on the other hand, then I am going to side with the Church.
This lets out the Eastern Orthodox bishops, as well as the SSPX. I’m not aware of any U.S. bishops being excommunicated for allowing altar girls prior to 1994.Absolutely. The bishops “in communion” with the Pope. (CCC, para. 85)
jordan said:Lumen Gentium does not say bishops have “full power” in their own dioceses.
Full power, complete power, what’s the difference: “The pastoral office or the habitual and daily care of their sheep is entrusted to them completely.”
The 1983 Code of Canon Law was personally approved by Pope John Paul II after over a year of detailed study and several hundren changes from the draft version. That’s good enough for me. It should be good enough for you as well.Show me something approved by Rome, and written prior to 1994.