R
Roseeurekacross
Guest
Which means, you don’t really understand because you cannot articulate your argument without quotes and copy and paste.
As far as I’m aware, it is a translational decision to use “profitable” or “sufficient”, and even Church Fathers like St. Vincent of Lerins indicate that Scripture is sufficient. Either way, whichever weird you use, the core of what I said about exclusive claims remains.No where and no word in 2 Tim 3:16-17 says that scripture is sufficient
I addressed a part of your post that hadn’t yet been addressed. If you didn’t feel like discussing the merits of your Scriptural interpretation, why bring it up in more than one post or at all?You missed the point of the question.
Don’t forget - the whole church didn’t assent to the original Nicene creed which was added to our faith either.Why was the Filioque added later without the assent of the whole church?
They didn’t require the rest of the Church to use this Creed. They approved it for use in the West, and never said the East needs to use it. Catholics may use any Creed that has been approved by the Church, including:I think Rome road roughshod over the rest of the church