Filioque, why was it added?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Ronofs
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Which means, you don’t really understand because you cannot articulate your argument without quotes and copy and paste.
 
But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:

The Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father. The filioque doesn’t deny that. That reality happens within the life of God exclusively. The inclusive act of God is the Holy Spirit sent to reveal the Father and the Son. The act of God that includes man is the Holy Spirit proceeding from both.
 
No where and no word in 2 Tim 3:16-17 says that scripture is sufficient
As far as I’m aware, it is a translational decision to use “profitable” or “sufficient”, and even Church Fathers like St. Vincent of Lerins indicate that Scripture is sufficient. Either way, whichever weird you use, the core of what I said about exclusive claims remains.
You missed the point of the question.
I addressed a part of your post that hadn’t yet been addressed. If you didn’t feel like discussing the merits of your Scriptural interpretation, why bring it up in more than one post or at all?
 
Last edited:
You are welcome. I found the Vatican’s study on the proper understanding of the Filioque helps clear up a lot of misunderstanding on the subject.
 
Why was the Filioque added later without the assent of the whole church?
Don’t forget - the whole church didn’t assent to the original Nicene creed which was added to our faith either.

Peace!!!
 
Last edited:
I think Rome road roughshod over the rest of the church
They didn’t require the rest of the Church to use this Creed. They approved it for use in the West, and never said the East needs to use it. Catholics may use any Creed that has been approved by the Church, including:
  • the original Nicene Creed
  • the revised version from the second ecumenical council that added most of the stuff about the Holy Spirit
  • the even later revision that added the Filioque
  • the Athanasian creed
  • and/or many others.
You don’t “ride roughshod” over Jim by telling him “You can do what you want.” The Church tells the Eastern Churches, “We’re totally cool with the Creed you use. We approve it, we endorse it, we accept it, we subscribe to it, yippee and rah rah for the original Nicene Creed, even without the Filioque! For ourselves, in our own patriarchate where the Roman Mass is used, we’re going to use a local version that includes the Filioque, because it’s an important reply to a heresy that was once a thing in our region, but you guys can continue to use the Creed you’ve always used.” << Is that really “riding roughshod”?
 
Last edited:
Out of all the people who responded to my query, only one person heard the heart of the question and provided me with a very helpful resource and answer. Thanks Canvas, for your kindness and clearness of mind.

For the rest of you, I am leaving this discussion. Have a good day.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top