M
mardukm
Guest
Many Creeds were in existence in the early Church. The main point was that they all professed the SAME FAITH, not that their wording was identical. But it is more than just professing the same Faith. It is more about BELIEVING the same Faith, whether expressed in the Creeds or not. This was the position of my holy Pope St. Cyril, and I side with him (as a Copt).Because Holy Orthodoxy demands that the Faith of the Fathers ‘all’ recite ‘one’ Creed, not ‘two’.
So that goes back to my original question. If according to WESTERN theology, without imposing Eastern theology on the Westerns, filioque is acceptable and orthodox, then what is the problem? I recall reading that during one of the Orthodox-Catholic colloquies on Christology (with participation from the Eastern,Orthodox, Catholic, and Oriental Orthodox Churches), one of the Oriental Orthodox bishops asserted that the Easterns should not think they have the monopoly on understanding/interpreting the Faith of the Fathers. There are other Traditions who have just as valid an interpretation of the Fathers. We may use different terminologies, or even the same terminologies with different meanings, but our goal towards unity is not uniformity, but rather UNDERSTANDING each others’ different Traditions.
Blessings,
Marduk