First Cause

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God also acted in time. Parting the Red Sea did not directly involve Jesus. Any of God’s miracles or other interventions in history required God intervening in time.

rossum
Again, irrelevant. You demonstrate **no **understanding of the nature of God’s actions: God does everything at once, exists outside of time but can work inside time. JD’s infinite past universe problem is not a problem for theists because God does it all at one point, no need to wait until a certain point.
 
You don’t get it. Actus Purus, the act of existing, is First Cause.
I disagree.

Do you accept that the First Cause cannot be a cause until it has actually caused something?

If you cannot accept that then you are outside logic. A cause has to be a cause, it cannot be a non-cause. Something which hasn’t caused anything is obviously a non-cause.

rossum
 
God does everything at once, exists outside of time but can work inside time.
If God is outside time then whatever acts inside time cannot be God. You have a Deist-style God.

If God is both outside time and inside time then whatever part of God is acting inside time has the same problem as anything else inside time. How could it get to where it is.

rossum
 
If God is outside time then whatever acts inside time cannot be God. You have a Deist-style God.
God **acts ** in time after time is created, but his essence and being exist outside and before time.
If God is both outside time and inside time then whatever part of God is acting inside time has the same problem as anything else inside time. How could it get to where it is.
Because he acts in time but exists outside of time. I already explained this. God exists outside of time, but occasionally works in it, so he isn’t affected by JD’s infinite past problem.

Your debating strategy seems to be:
  1. Invent philosophical problem to take down a position you don’t like.
  2. Present problem as a response to a paragraph which has nothing to do with it.
  3. Get “problem” completely annihilated by beginner in philosophy
  4. Restate problem exactly the same, fail to refute or define out opponent’s objection, spruce it up by giving a second option which is a total strawman.
  5. If 4 fails too many times, start talking about some Mystic Quasi-Knowledge and hope to win on your own grounds.
Yep, you should publish this. Way better than that “Aristotle” guy’s way of refuting a position!
 
A cause has to be a cause, it cannot be a non-cause. Something which hasn’t caused anything is obviously a non-cause.
You are starting to sound like our “esteemed” former Prime Minister… 😃

…a proof is a proof. What kind of a proof? It’s a proof. A proof is a proof. And when you have a good proof, it’s because it’s proven.
- Jean Chretien

youtube.com/watch?v=aX6XMIldkRU
 
I disagree.

Do you accept that the First Cause cannot be a cause until it has actually caused something?

If you cannot accept that then you are outside logic. A cause has to be a cause, it cannot be a non-cause. Something which hasn’t caused anything is obviously a non-cause.

rossum
Not only do I reject your statement, I reject it because I have proven it to be false, using logic. I demonstrated, using the universally accepted logical method of proof by contradiction that First Cause is logically necessary. Being logically necessary absolutely excludes First Cause from any contingency or dependency. This means First Cause is not contingent or dependent on anything for any reason. Not causes, not effects, not language, not rules of grammar, nothing.
 
God **acts ** in time after time is created, but his essence and being exist outside and before time.
God can hardly act in time before time is created can He. You are also separating God and ‘Essence of God’. Are these two different things or are they one thing? If they are two different things then please specify the differences between them. If they are the same thing then one of them is redundant, so please rephrase what you are saying.
Because he acts in time but exists outside of time. I already explained this. God exists outside of time, but occasionally works in it, so he isn’t affected by JD’s infinite past problem.
If God exists outside time then is He present inside time? If He is only “occasionally” active inside then He cannot be sustaining the world, because the world is sustained constantly, not “occasionally”.

If God is omnipresent then He is always present in time as well as outside time. There can be no “occasionally” about it.

Any work inside time has to start and finish within time. Given that there is a starting point in time then JD’s infinite past problem applies.
Your debating strategy seems to be:
  1. Invent philosophical problem to take down a position you don’t like.
  2. Present problem as a response to a paragraph which has nothing to do with it.
  3. Get “problem” completely annihilated by beginner in philosophy
  4. Restate problem exactly the same, fail to refute or define out opponent’s objection, spruce it up by giving a second option which is a total strawman.
  5. If 4 fails too many times, start talking about some Mystic Quasi-Knowledge and hope to win on your own grounds.
Yep, you should publish this. Way better than that “Aristotle” guy’s way of refuting a position!
I am Buddhist. My philosophical position is Madhyamika. A lot of things that are taken for granted in Western philosophy, and a lot of the approaches common in Western philosophy, are rejected by the Madhyamika:Nagarjuna’s philosophy represents something of a watershed not only in the history of Indian philosophy but in the history of philosophy as a whole, as it calls into questions certain philosophical assumptions so easily resorted to in our attempt to understand the world. Among these assumptions are the existence of stable substances, the linear and one-directional movement of causation, the atomic individuality of persons, the belief in a fixed identity or selfhood, and the strict separations between good and bad conduct and the blessed and fettered life. All such assumptions are called into fundamental question by Nagarjuna’s unique perspective
rossum
 
Not only do I reject your statement, I reject it because I have proven it to be false, using logic. I demonstrated, using the universally accepted logical method of proof by contradiction that First Cause is logically necessary. Being logically necessary absolutely excludes First Cause from any contingency or dependency. This means First Cause is not contingent or dependent on anything for any reason. Not causes, not effects, not language, not rules of grammar, nothing.
Your logic fails because your First Cause contains potentiality. Actus Purus cannot contain potentiality. QED.

Or do you assert that a non-cause is a cause? A = ~A?

rossum
 
God can hardly act in time before time is created can He. You are also separating God and ‘Essence of God’. Are these two different things or are they one thing? If they are two different things then please specify the differences between them. If they are the same thing then one of them is redundant, so please rephrase what you are saying.

If God exists outside time then is He present inside time? If He is only “occasionally” active inside then He cannot be sustaining the world, because the world is sustained constantly, not “occasionally”.

If God is omnipresent then He is always present in time as well as outside time. There can be no “occasionally” about it.
God exists outside of time. He intervenes IN time. As an example, take reaching your hand in a pond. You are INTERVENING in the pond, but you do not exist in the pond - you exist beyond the pond, on land.
Any work inside time has to start and finish within time. Given that there is a starting point in time then JD’s infinite past problem applies.
BUT, your argument AGAIN fails because not ALL of God’s work is in time! Creating the Universe is not IN time. Plus, while God reaches his hand in time, he isn’t bound by it! He does all at once, not in a “line” of work as we do!
I am Buddhist. My philosophical position is Madhyamika. A lot of things that are taken for granted in Western philosophy, and a lot of the approaches common in Western philosophy, are rejected by the Madhyamika:Nagarjuna’s philosophy represents something of a watershed not only in the history of Indian philosophy but in the history of philosophy as a whole, as it calls into questions certain philosophical assumptions so easily resorted to in our attempt to understand the world. Among these assumptions are the existence of stable substances, the linear and one-directional movement of causation, the atomic individuality of persons, the belief in a fixed identity or selfhood, and the strict separations between good and bad conduct and the blessed and fettered life. All such assumptions are called into fundamental question by Nagarjuna’s unique perspective
Adhering to a school of thought which rejects certain “assumptions” does not alter the rule that a restatement is not a rebuttal. If Nagarjuna rejects that, than you’re worst than those Last Thursday-ists you endlessly complain about!

In addition, it seems, from the description you provided, that Nagarjuna is a way of dodging any sort of logical analysis of one’s worldview (which I covered in #5 of “Rossum’s course of argument”). If one refutes the logic of your worldview, and then you complain that it rests on assumptions that your worldview rejects, that is just copping out of rational discussion. Just as well, if you present an argument or objection (which, ironically, rests on some of these assumptions), you can’t just say it rests on a faulty assumption, and if you do, you can’t say that just because your particular school of thought rejects that! If that’s your rationale, it’s all opinion.

Plus, it seems that leaving out these “assumptions” kills the entire point of philosophy anyway. I fail to see why you are attracted to this school. other than to adhere to your religion with disregard to rational analysis.
 
Your logic fails because your First Cause contains potentiality. Actus Purus cannot contain potentiality. QED.

Or do you assert that a non-cause is a cause? A = ~A?

rossum
Causes may be potential or actual, necessary or sufficient. By definition First Cause is actual as it is defined to be necessary, without any potentiality.
 
God exists outside of time. He intervenes IN time. As an example, take reaching your hand in a pond. You are INTERVENING in the pond, but you do not exist in the pond - you exist beyond the pond, on land.
So, God has two parts. One part is outside time, as part of me is outside the pond, and part of God is inside time, as part of me is in the pond.

These two parts have separate properties, God-A is outside time while God-B is inside time. Since one thing cannot have opposed properties we therefore have two separate things, one outside time and one inside time.

Given two separate things we can proceed to analyse them separately. God-A is outside time and can never intervene in time. God-B is inside time and can act within time.
BUT, your argument AGAIN fails because not ALL of God’s work is in time! Creating the Universe is not IN time. Plus, while God reaches his hand in time, he isn’t bound by it! He does all at once, not in a “line” of work as we do!
None of God-A’s work is in time. All of God-B’s work is in time. Which God are you talking about? You are switching between two gods, with different properties, and one God.
Adhering to a school of thought which rejects certain “assumptions” does not alter the rule that a restatement is not a rebuttal. If Nagarjuna rejects that, than you’re worst than those Last Thursday-ists you endlessly complain about!
Nagarjuna has reasons for rejecting those assumptions.
In addition, it seems, from the description you provided, that Nagarjuna is a way of dodging any sort of logical analysis of one’s worldview (which I covered in #5 of “Rossum’s course of argument”).
The Madhyamika has been described as “philosophical ju-jitsu”. It uses the opponents’ arguments to demolish the opponents own position while putting forward no position of its own.

rossum
 
Causes may be potential or actual, necessary or sufficient. By definition First Cause is actual as it is defined to be necessary, without any potentiality.
The First Cause cannot be an actual cause unless and until there is a First Effect. A cause cannot be a cause unless and until it has actually caused an effect. Before it has caused something it can at most be a potential cause.

The First Cause is dependent on the First Effect to be an actual cause. Otherwise you would have an actual cause which did not have any effect.

rossum
 
You still don’t get it. Actus Purus, the act of existing, is First Cause.
Actus Purus is not the act of existing it is pure actuality, without any potentiality at all. Read the article in the Catholic Encyclopedia: Actus Purus.

The First Cause is not pure actuality so it cannot be Actus Purus.

rossum
 
So, God has two parts. One part is outside time, as part of me is outside the pond, and part of God is inside time, as part of me is in the pond.

These two parts have separate properties, God-A is outside time while God-B is inside time. Since one thing cannot have opposed properties we therefore have two separate things, one outside time and one inside time.
Uhh… no. God is made of no parts but is present everywhere. His presence is in time, that is to say he is present in time, but he is existing outside of it, meaning he isn’t bound by it.
Given two separate things we can proceed to analyse them separately. God-A is outside time and can never intervene in time. God-B is inside time and can act within time.
None of God-A’s work is in time. All of God-B’s work is in time. Which God are you talking about? You are switching between two gods, with different properties, and one God.
The hand allegory was imperfect, but God is effectively in multiple places at once. He is outside time AND inside time, but he is not bound by time, so he does all at once and does not need to wait for a certain point from an allegedly infinite past, both because time didn’t exist and everything happened at once anyway, and that he does everything at once, his actions to not lead into one another but function as they are.
Nagarjuna has reasons for rejecting those assumptions.
I said I was fine with Nagarjuna rejecting what it listed (I obviously think it’s wrong, but I can tolerate it), but if it rejected that a restatement is not a rebuttal than it’s nothing more than cognitive dissonance disguised as philosophy.
The Madhyamika has been described as “philosophical ju-jitsu”. It uses the opponents’ arguments to demolish the opponents own position while putting forward no position of its own.
Well, you aren’t really demolishing my arguments. Your objections are pretty weak and strawman-like. And if there is no position to defend, why debate?

Look, all I’m saying is, this whole school seems like a way of vaguely attacking your opponents with no regard to the laws of logic, throwing out the window all the tools needed for basic philosophy, and dodging any sort of criticism of your own position.
 
Actus Purus is not the act of existing it is pure actuality, without any potentiality at all. Read the article in the Catholic Encyclopedia: Actus Purus.

The First Cause is not pure actuality so it cannot be Actus Purus.

rossum
The first cause is pure actuality, since it does not gain its being from anything that is changing. Therefore the first cause is not changing since its being does not proceed from potentility. Since all potential reality proceeds from an actual reality, the first cuase cannot possibly be said to be in the order of things that potentially exist or has the potentility of change, since its very being stands outside the order of change neccesarily because it is the cause of it. Thus it is neccesarily a timless and “perfect” act. A perfect mind doesn’t require time inorder to act or know, since its act and being and knowledge are all one in its perfection, and thus trancends all contingency and time itself. God has never not created the universe. Creation is a timless act of Gods perfect will.

And even if we didn’t understand how a thing could be a timless cause, we still must posit its existence because out nothing comes nothing. There is no potentility in absolutly nothing. Therefore there has to be a reality that trancends all potentility and is the cause of it.

You only manage to present what appears to be a contradiction because you assume that all cuases must be changing. But the alternative would requires us to believe that potentiality ultimatly comes out of nothing. Therefore a timeless cause wins in virtue of the fact that being precedes potentility and thus its absolute transcedence of time is required for the possibility of potential existence.
 
The First Cause is not pure actuality so it cannot be Actus Purus.
You still aren’t getting it. First Cause=Actus Purus. Your sentence says “The Actus Purus is not pure actuality so it cannot be Actus Purus.” It is nonsensical.
 
The First Cause cannot be an actual cause unless and until there is a First Effect. A cause cannot be a cause unless and until it has actually caused an effect. Before it has caused something it can at most be a potential cause.

The First Cause is dependent on the First Effect to be an actual cause. Otherwise you would have an actual cause which did not have any effect.
A cause cannot be dependent on something that is not actualized. It is called a cause because it is simply a matter of fact, not a requisite dependency.

For necessary causes, if x is a necessary cause of y, then the existence of y necessarily indicates the existence of x.* However, the existence of x, does not mean that y will occur*. Note that x can be present, whether or not *y *is caused. There is no mutual dependency.
 
The first cause is pure actuality, since it does not gain its being from anything that is changing.
Here is where we disagree. It cannot be an actual cause until after the First Effect exists. If there is no First Effect then the First Cause can only be a potential cause, and not an actual cause. If you allow an unchanging eternal First Effect in parallel with the First Cause then I will grant that the First Cause can be pure actuality. However, it is still dependent on the First Effect for its purely actual status.
Therefore the first cause is not changing since its being does not proceed from potentility.
Only if the First Effect is also eternal. Otherwise the First Cause has to change from potential cause to actual cause.
You only manage to present what appears to be a contradiction because you assume that all cuases must be changing.
I assume that causes must have effects in order to be actual causes. If the effect had a beginning then its cause has to change from potential to actual. If the effect has no beginning then its cause does not have to change and can always be actual.

rossum
 
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