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jerome_ky
Guest
Why is verse 1 of chapter 9 in the KJV equal to the last verse of chapter 8 in the DV? The New American Bible follows the KJV on this, whereas the Vulgate concords with the DV. Does anyone know the history?
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triumphguy
Guest
Chapters and verses in bibles are a modern innovation - they ain’t biblical
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jerome_ky
Guest
I know Baptists who believe the King James was dictated by the Holy Spirit for the English speaking world, who believe that one word of difference (e.g., John 3:16 “should not perish” vs "might not perish) is of the devil. So I think something that throws off the verse numbering of a whole chapter of Mark’s Gospel can be a target and therefore I’d like to know the history of this, if anyone knows it.Chapters and verses in bibles are a modern innovation - they ain’t biblical
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triumphguy
Guest
I know biblical fundamentalists who believe ST. Paul write the KJV! (not really, but almost
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Joe_Kelley
Guest
No way. An Assembly of God minister once told us [in jest] that God Himself gave the KJV to Adam and Eve as they left Eden.I know biblical fundamentalists who believe ST. Paul write the KJV! (not really, but almost
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creole54
Guest
I know for a fact that there are some poor, ignorant folks out there that think the KJV is the Bible that Jesus read. One can only pity them and pray for enlightenment.
I hadn’t noticed that about the numbering being different. Then again, I find the D-R very hard to read and don’t read it very often.
I hadn’t noticed that about the numbering being different. Then again, I find the D-R very hard to read and don’t read it very often.
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