Firstborn in the Bible

[shawn38]

Much debate takes place over whether Mary had other children or was a perpetual virgin. Mt 1:25 is a common verse argue that she had others. Those opposed argue that “firstborn” does not necessarily mean that there were others. Other than pertaining to Chirst, does someone know a particular verse, Old or New Testament, that gives an example where “firstborn” is used where we can conclusively prove that there was only one child ?

Matthew 1:25 And he knew her not till she brought forth her** firstborn **son: and he called his name JESUS.

 

[Prodigal_Son1]

I know you could have found a lot of other threads on this subject, but in this instance (I’m at work and don’t have access to my esword (pc Bible) with all my study notes) I looked the verse up at www.drbo.org and found the commentary on verse 25 explains it very well.

"Till she brought forth her firstborn son"… From these words Helvidius and other heretics most impiously inferred that the blessed Virgin Mary had other children besides Christ; but St. Jerome shews, by divers examples, that this expression of the Evangelist was a manner of speaking usual among the Hebrews, to denote by the word until, only what is done, without any regard to the future. Thus it is said, Genesis 8. 6 and 7, that Noe sent forth a raven, which went forth, and did not return till the waters were dried up on the earth. That is, did not return any more. Also Isaias 46. 4, God says: I am till you grow old. Who dare infer that God should then cease to be: Also in the first book of Machabees 5. 54, And they went up to mount Sion with joy and gladness, and offered holocausts, because not one of them was slain till they had returned in peace. That is, not one was slain before or after they had returned. God saith to his divine Son: Sit on my right hand till I make thy enemies thy footstool. Shall he sit no longer after his enemies are subdued? Yea and for all eternity. St. Jerome also proves by Scripture examples, that an only begotten son, was also called firstborn, or first begotten: because according to the law, the firstborn males were to be consecrated to God; Sanctify unto me, saith the Lord, every firstborn that openeth the womb among the children of Israel, etc. Ex. 13. 2.

 

[Teneas]

Much debate takes place over whether Mary had other children or was a perpetual virgin. Mt 1:25 is a common verse argue that she had others. Those opposed argue that “firstborn” does not necessarily mean that there were others. Other than pertaining to Chirst, does someone know a particular verse, Old or New Testament, that gives an example where “firstborn” is used where we can conclusively prove that there was only one child ?

Matthew 1:25 And he knew her not till she brought forth her** firstborn **son: and he called his name JESUS.

Am looking for you, but been unsuccessful so far.

 

[zz912]

How about Exodus 13?

The LORD spoke to Moses and said,

2
“Consecrate to me every first-born that opens the womb among the Israelites, both of man and beast, for it belongs to me.”

Now was this implying that you must wait for the second child or animal? Or was it to denote the special place of the first born, whether there was another child or animal? Were the first born children who never had a younger brother or sister relieved of being consecrated?

 

[zz912]

Or Deuteronomy 21

15
"If a man with two wives loves one and dislikes the other; and if both bear him sons, but the first-born is of her whom he dislikes:
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when he comes to bequeath his property to his sons he may not consider as his first-born the son of the wife he loves, in preference to his true first-born, the son of the wife whom he dislikes.
17
On the contrary, he shall recognize as his first-born the son of her whom he dislikes, giving him a double share of whatever he happens to own, since he is the first fruits of his manhood, and to him belong the rights of the first-born.

The first-born is the first born of either wife, whether that particular wife has another child or not.

 

[FCEGM]

Much debate takes place over whether Mary had other children or was a perpetual virgin. Mt 1:25 is a common verse argue that she had others. Those opposed argue that “firstborn” does not necessarily mean that there were others. Other than pertaining to Chirst, does someone know a particular verse, Old or New Testament, that gives an example where “firstborn” is used where we can conclusively prove that there was only one child ?

Matthew 1:25 And he knew her not till she brought forth her** firstborn **son: and he called his name JESUS.

Since “firstborn” is a technical term which signifies the child that opens the womb (see Exodus 13:2 and Numbers 3:12) and is not an indication that other children were born to the mother, it is, therfore not necessary that another passage of Scripture be found to uphold St. Luke’s intent and the Church’s teaching. Further, Mary and Joseph fulfilled precisely the cultic requirements of Exodus 34:20 for redeeming their Firstborn. This post on the subject shows extra-biblical (and Jewish) evidence, however:

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6039767&postcount=43