"For all the gods of the Gentiles are devils: but the Lord made the heavens"

[Sam_777]

Douay-Rheims Bible:

“Psalm 96:5”
“For all the gods of the Gentiles are devils: but the Lord made the heavens.”

“1 Chronicles 16:26”
“For all the gods of the nations are idols: but the Lord made the heavens.”

What is the accurate translation “devils” or “idols”, and why that difference within the same Bible?

 

[Verbum]

Hi Sam,

The passage from Chronicles is inspired by several psalms, but it is not the psalms. There is no reason why it should use the same vocabulary.

I looked up both passages in my Bible de Jérusalem, and, in both cases, they use neither “devils” nor “idols”. They say the gods of the gentiles are “nothing”…

The interpretation “devils” originates from the Greek translation called the Septuagint.

“Nothing” seems to be justified when we go back to the Hebrew.

See mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt2696.htm

and

mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt25a16.htm

Does this answer your question?

Verbum

 

[Sam_777]

Does this answer your question?

Verbum

Yes, thank you Verbum.