For thine Is The Kingdom...

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Righteousone

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Correct me here, but I don’t recall Christ saying this part of the Our Father at the end of it. Perhaps He did but I don’t remember. Someone told me it is a Protestant thing that was added not too long ago. Then why do we say it?
 
Correct me here, but I don’t recall Christ saying this part of the Our Father at the end of it. Perhaps He did but I don’t remember. Someone told me it is a Protestant thing that was added not too long ago. Then why do we say it?
Just as a point of clarification, when you ask “Why do we day it”, are you refering to its use in the Mass?

James
 
Correct me here, but I don’t recall Christ saying this part of the Our Father at the end of it. Perhaps He did but I don’t remember. Someone told me it is a Protestant thing that was added not too long ago. Then why do we say it?
It was actually written in Catholic Bibles as scribes were copying it over, (because it was said in Catholic Liturgies), but it was ONLY copied as a side note. That ending phrase is not in the original manuscripts of the Lord’s Prayer in any of the Gospels. Some Protestant translators not having knowledge of it, copied it into their Bibles anyways.

Someone with more knowledge on the subject should feel free to add.

Pace e Bene
Andrew
 
It was actually written in Catholic Bibles as scribes were copying it over, (because it was said in Catholic Liturgies), but it was ONLY copied as a side note. That ending phrase is not in the original manuscripts of the Lord’s Prayer in any of the Gospels. Some Protestant translators not having knowledge of it, copied it into their Bibles anyways.

Someone with more knowledge on the subject should feel free to add.

Pace e Bene
Andrew
Could you please quote me the Scripture of it?
 
Just as a point of clarification, when you ask “Why do we day it”, are you refering to its use in the Mass?

James
Yes, it’s use in the Mass. I don’t recall saying it for years as a kid.
 
Could you please quote me the Scripture of it?
It’s not in our Catholic Bibles, to my knowledge, or even Orthodox Bibles for that matter. It’s in Protestant Bibles, but Catholics have always recited it during their respective Liturgies after the Our Father was said.

So whichever Gospels have the Our Father in it, that’s where it would be added to. I know St. Matthew’s Gospel has the Our Father, but I’m not sure which others do.

Alaha minokhoun
Andrew
 
It’s not in our Catholic Bibles, to my knowledge, or even Orthodox Bibles for that matter. It’s in Protestant Bibles, but Catholics have always recited it during their respective Liturgies after the Our Father was said.

So whichever Gospels have the Our Father in it, that’s where it would be added to. I know St. Matthew’s Gospel has the Our Father, but I’m not sure which others do.

Alaha minokhoun
Andrew
Thank you for that info. 👍 But if it is not in our bibles, and it is Protestant, then why do we say it? Must be good if it comes to the Catholic church.
 
Mat 6:13 And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.
When was the Doxology added to the Lord’s Prayer?
Jesus taught the Lord’s Prayer twice during his earthly ministry (cf Mt 6:9ff. and Luke 11:2ff.). When he taught the Lord’s Prayer to his disciples (the Luke account), he did not include the doxology. When he taught the Lord’s Prayer as part of the Sermon on the Mount (the Mt account), there is some question whether he included the doxology or not.
In the Matthew account, the earliest Greek manuscript to include the doxology is dated in the 400’s. There are a few Greek manuscripts that are a little earlier than this (the 300’s) that do not have the doxology. However, there are some versions (Bible translations) such as a Latin translation, a Coptic translation, and a Syriac translation (which are as early as the earliest Greek manuscripts) that do include the doxology.
These translations are among some of the earliest witnesses we have to the NT text. Since the textual evidence is split whether the doxology was spoken by Jesus or not, this remains an open question. The doxology may have been spoken by Jesus, or there also is the possibility that it was an addition made in the early Christian church. The fact that the witnesses that do include it vary in their word order adds an argument against it being original. The fact that copyists did not try to add it to the Luke account suggests that it was original in the Matthew account. If it was not original with Jesus, it was added within a short time after the New Testament was written since it is referred to in the Didache.
 
Mat 6:13 And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.
Your Matthew Scripture, is it from a Catholic bible? What is the name of the bible.
 
Correct me here, but I don’t recall Christ saying this part of the Our Father at the end of it. Perhaps He did but I don’t remember. Someone told me it is a Protestant thing that was added not too long ago. Then why do we say it?
From the Catechism:
2760 Very early on, liturgical usage concluded the Lord’s Prayer with a doxology. In the Didache, we find, “For yours are the power and the glory for ever.”[4] The Apostolic Constitutions add to the beginning: “the kingdom,” and this is the formula retained to our day in ecumenical prayer.[5]
The Byzantine tradition adds after “the glory” the words “Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.” The Roman Missal develops the last petition in the explicit perspective of “awaiting our blessed hope” and of the Second Coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.[6] Then comes the assembly’s acclamation or the repetition of the doxology from the Apostolic Constitutions.
 
Thank you for that info. 👍 But if it is not in our bibles, and it is Protestant, then why do we say it? Must be good if it comes to the Catholic church.
It is not Protestant. It come from the Didache.
The Didache is perhaps the first text to append a doxology to the Lord’s Prayer: “…for thine is the power and the glory unto all ages.”
See this link too.
 
Correct me here, but I don’t recall Christ saying this part of the Our Father at the end of it. Perhaps He did but I don’t remember. Someone told me it is a Protestant thing that was added not too long ago. Then why do we say it?
somebody told you wrong, it has been used since the earliest days of the Church and apprears in the Didache, one of earliest apostolic non-biblical writings that survives.
 
somebody told you wrong, it has been used since the earliest days of the Church and apprears in the Didache, one of earliest apostolic non-biblical writings that survives.
Yes, but the phrase was never put in the Bible itself until centuries after.
 
I assume that it must have been in Erasmus’ Greek New Testament as it appears in every version I have seen that uses his work for its textual basis.
 
Came from the Didache.
In Spanish we never say the Doxology and the end of the Lords Prayer.
 
My understanding is that the Doxology was adapted from Tradition into early liturgies. One scribe, somewhere along the line, included it in the margin of the Bible he was copying (not an uncommon practice).

It’s cool how Protestants include part of early Catholic liturgy in their renditions of the Bible.
 
Correct me here, but I don’t recall Christ saying this part of the Our Father at the end of it. Perhaps He did but I don’t remember. Someone told me it is a Protestant thing that was added not too long ago. Then why do we say it?
It’s an ancient doxology used in the liturgy (it might be in the Didache, I can’t remember). It was so often associated with the Lord’s prayer that it was put in the footnotes of some Bibles and even copied directly into the text. It was in the KJV (I think) which is why English-speaking Protestants tend to say it that way.
 
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