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BrianH
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Hegesippus 160 ADJames, the Lord’s brother, succeeds to the government of the Church, in conjunction with the apostles.
Hegesippus 160 ADJames, the Lord’s brother, succeeds to the government of the Church, in conjunction with the apostles.
Really? On the contrary he disagrees with you:St. John Chrysostom disagrees with you:
There was no arrogance in the Church. After Peter, Paul speaks, and none silences him: James waits patiently; not starts up (for the next word). No word speaks John here, no word the other Apostles, but held their peace, for James was invested with the chief rule, and think it no hardship. So clean was their soul from love of glory. Peter indeed spoke more strongly, but James here more mildly: for thus it behooves one in high authority, to leave what is unpleasant for others to say, while he himself appears in the milder part.
St John Chrysostom,Homily XXXIII on Acts xv.
I don’t remember saying that I didn’t think Peter was the prince of the apostles. Nice strawman argument. Please address the evidence I posted. Does St. John Chrysostom’s exegesis disagree with your exegesis of Acts 15 or not?Really? On the contrary he disagrees with you:
“Peter, that head of the Apostles, the first in the Church, the friend of Christ, who received the revelation not from man but from the Father…this Peter, and when I say Peter, I mean the unbroken Rock, the unshaken foundation, the great apostle, the first of the disciples, the first called, the first to obey.” (De Eleemos III, 4, vol II, 298[300])
“Peter the coryphaeus of the choir of apostles, the mouth of the disciples, the foundation of the faith, the base of the confession, the fisherman of the world, who brought back our race form the depth of error to heaven, he who is everywhere fervent and full of boldness, or rather of love than of boldness.” (Hom de decem mille talentis, 3, vol III, 20[4])
“See the unanimity of the apostles,” he says, on Acts 2:4: “they give up to Peter the office of preaching, for it would not do for all to preach.” “Hear how this same John, who now comes forward (to ask for a seat at Christ’s right hand) in the Acts of the Apostles, always gives up the first place to Peter both in preaching and in working miracles. Afterwards James and John were not thus. Everywhere they gave up the first place to Peter, and in preaching they set him first, though he seemed of rougher manners than the others.”
Again, he remarks how St. Paul “gives up to Peter the first place.” (Hom 4 in Acta 3, vol IX, 46[37]; Hom 65[66] in Matt 4, vol VII, 622[648], ibid Hom 50[51], 506[515]; Hom 35 in 1 Cor 5, vol X, 303[329]; Hom 8 in Acta 1, vol IX, 71-72[64-65]).
“The first of the apostles, the foundation of the Church, the coryphaeus of the choir of the disciples.” (Ad eos qui scandalizati sunt, 17, vol III, 517[504])
“The foundation of the Church, the vehement lover of Christ, at once unlearned in speech, and the vanquisher of orators, the man without education who closed the mouth of philosophers, who destroyed the philosophy of the Greeks as though it were a spider’s web, he who ran throughout the world, he who cast his net into the sea, and fished the whole world.” (In illud, Vidi dominum, 3, vol VI, 123[124])
“Peter, the base, the pillar…” (Hom Quod frequenta conueniendum sit, 5, vol XII, 466[328])
“This holy coryphaeus of the blessed choir, the lover of Christ, the ardent disciple, who was entrusted with the keys of heaven, he who received the spiritual revelation.” (In Acta Apost VI, I [chap 2, verse 22] vol IX, 56[48])
Strawman argument? Likely excuse. Apparently his words do not go down with you very well do they? Cannot accept it,so let us turn the tables. Been there…done that a million times. Is his quote rebuking the primacy-yes or no?I don’t remember saying that I didn’t think Peter was the prince of the apostles. Nice strawman argument. Please address the evidence I posted. Does St. John Chrysostom’s exegesis disagree with your exegesis of Acts 15 or not?
OK, first I thought this was going to be some hypothetical question, but I did find myself in a situation exactly like this in 2004. I met some people who attended Divine Liturgy at ROCOR (Russian Orthodox Church Outside of Russia), the Church to which the great Saint, ascetic, and wonderworker St. John of Shanghai and San Francisco (deceased 1967) used to belong during his lifetime.Jacob50 said:Even if the schism was at follows: 90% Catholics on one side and 10% in another.
catholic.com/magazine/articles/was-james-the-real-leader-of-the-early-churchWith all due respect,
What do we understand from Acts 15?
Was it not James the one who finally issued the “judgement”?
He did not differ the final decision to Peter, but based on Peter’s argument and that of Paul and Barnabas he reached a conclusion which was agreed upon by the founding Fathers. Clearly showing and demonstrating that the decisions were not made by Peter alone, but by common agreement and in respect of each other’s place of honor.
Why change from this into one individual?
In Him.
Peter issued the judgement to allow the gentiles in the “whole” Church through baptism and not circumcision, because Peter alone is the one that recieved the vision from God from heaven to allow the gentiles in the Church.With all due respect,
What do we understand from Acts 15?
Was it not James the one who finally issued the “judgement”?
He did not differ the final decision to Peter, but based on Peter’s argument and that of Paul and Barnabas he reached a conclusion which was agreed upon by the founding Fathers. Clearly showing and demonstrating that the decisions were not made by Peter alone, but by common agreement and in respect of each other’s place of honor.
Why change from this into one individual?
In Him.
You seem to confuse this with his next directive in v. 20-21; however, look at v. 19 wherein what he said: “It is my judgment, therefore, that we ought to stop troubling the Gentiles who turn to Go”. Stop troubling them with what? The food discipline? If one reads it carefully, v. 19 actually refers to what Peter spoke of. v. 20-21 then also mentions about the other disciplines. So it is clear James made the final decision, not Peter. Peter’s role in the affair was to give testimony to what he experienced as well to testify that the Gentiles are no different from them. However, as one can read, he did not make a definitive decision on this one, but James did.James only offers a food discipline to follow for his Jewish and gentile converts
What exactly do you mean by this?My questions for you (Orthodox preferably), are:
1- What is the Chair of Peter exactly according to you?
The Absolutist Petrine view is lopsided, for it does not take into account the collegial nature of the situation.:tsktsk: The Low Petrine view is inconsistent, for it grants to St. James a headship and authority that they constantly deny any head bishop has.:juggle:Reading Acts 15 would actually help; reading it, the Orthodox view of it makes more sense than the Catholic one. Essentially, the Catholic interpretation lops off 13-21, making it seem Peter made the decision. However, it is very clear it was James who made the final decision (v. 19-21), not Peter.
You seem to forget that St. Peter already made the decision for the whole Church in Acts 11.You seem to confuse this with his next directive in v. 20-21; however, look at v. 19 wherein what he said: “It is my judgment, therefore, that we ought to stop troubling the Gentiles who turn to Go”. Stop troubling them with what? The food discipline? If one reads it carefully, v. 19 actually refers to what Peter spoke of. v. 20-21 then also mentions about the other disciplines. So it is clear James made the final decision, not Peter. Peter’s role in the affair was to give testimony to what he experienced as well to testify that the Gentiles are no different from them. However, as one can read, he did not make a definitive decision on this one, but James did.
Nothing on Acts 11 even imply that thing; where do you get this notion? If Peter already decided for the Church, as you propose, then the event in Acts 15 would have been redundant. As it is, from how the affair played out, the issue was not even settled until James made the final decision.You seem to forget that St. Peter already made the decision for the whole Church in Acts 11.
And that is your misunderstanding of the whole point of infallibility. You seem to think that infallibility is for the purpose of ramming the Truth at the expense of conscience. You seem to think that when an infallible teaching is proposed by the Church, then it will never be opposed by anyone. That’s rather naive, brother Milliardo. The purpose of infallibility is not to force belief, but to authoritatively establish the Truth. Just because someone opposes infallible teaching does not mean that the Truth has not been authoritatively established beforehoand.Nothing on Acts 11 even imply that thing; where do you get this notion? If Peter already decided for the Church, as you propose, then the event in Acts 15 would have been redundant.
And neither did the decision of the Council settle the issue because we know that Judaizing existed in the Church well into the second century. So that basically refutes your whole understanding of what Church authority is for.As it is, from how the affair played out, the issue was not even settled until James made the final decision.
It seems that you are having trouble understanding me, so I’m going to run you through this step by step.Strawman argument? Likely excuse. Apparently his words do not go down with you very well do they? Cannot accept it,so let us turn the tables. Been there…done that a million times. Is his quote rebuking the primacy-yes or no?
You posted your argument against the idea that James makes the judgment in Acts 15 here:With all due respect,
What do we understand from Acts 15?
Was it not James the one who finally issued the “judgement”?
He did not differ the final decision to Peter, but based on Peter’s argument and that of Paul and Barnabas he reached a conclusion which was agreed upon by the founding Fathers. Clearly showing and demonstrating that the decisions were not made by Peter alone, but by common agreement and in respect of each other’s place of honor.
Why change from this into one individual?
In Him.
I posted a rebuttal with a patristic exegesis of Acts 15 which states that James does make the judgment:Not exactly.
Acts 15:7, during the first Church Council, the Council of Jerusalem…
And after a long debate, Peter got up and said to them,
“Brethren, you know that in early days GOD made choice among us, that through MY mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the Gospel and believe.”
Who made the choice? GOD did. Who did GOD choose? He chose Peter. Now that is primacy.
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Instead of staying on the topic of Acts 15, you responded with this post, in which you employed a strawman argument by making it seem as if my argument was against the headship of Peter, when in fact my argument was that James is the one who makes the judgment in Acts 15 (in case you are unfamiliar, a strawman argument is a fallacy of relevance in which a dummy or straw man argument is set up and then refuted, when in fact the opponent never made the argument in the first place):St. John Chrysostom disagrees with you:
There was no arrogance in the Church. After Peter, Paul speaks, and none silences him: James waits patiently; not starts up (for the next word). No word speaks John here, no word the other Apostles, but held their peace, for James was invested with the chief rule, and think it no hardship. So clean was their soul from love of glory. Peter indeed spoke more strongly, but James here more mildly: for thus it behooves one in high authority, to leave what is unpleasant for others to say, while he himself appears in the milder part.
St John Chrysostom,Homily XXXIII on Acts xv.
Really? On the contrary he disagrees with you:
“Peter, that head of the Apostles, the first in the Church, the friend of Christ, who received the revelation not from man but from the Father…this Peter, and when I say Peter, I mean the unbroken Rock, the unshaken foundation, the great apostle, the first of the disciples, the first called, the first to obey.” (De Eleemos III, 4, vol II, 298[300])
“Peter the coryphaeus of the choir of apostles, the mouth of the disciples, the foundation of the faith, the base of the confession, the fisherman of the world, who brought back our race form the depth of error to heaven, he who is everywhere fervent and full of boldness, or rather of love than of boldness.” (Hom de decem mille talentis, 3, vol III, 20[4])
“See the unanimity of the apostles,” he says, on Acts 2:4: “they give up to Peter the office of preaching, for it would not do for all to preach.” “Hear how this same John, who now comes forward (to ask for a seat at Christ’s right hand) in the Acts of the Apostles, always gives up the first place to Peter both in preaching and in working miracles. Afterwards James and John were not thus. Everywhere they gave up the first place to Peter, and in preaching they set him first, though he seemed of rougher manners than the others.”
Again, he remarks how St. Paul “gives up to Peter the first place.” (Hom 4 in Acta 3, vol IX, 46[37]; Hom 65[66] in Matt 4, vol VII, 622[648], ibid Hom 50[51], 506[515]; Hom 35 in 1 Cor 5, vol X, 303[329]; Hom 8 in Acta 1, vol IX, 71-72[64-65]).
[truncated to save space]
Now notice here again how you have employed a fallacy of relevance in the bolded statement (whether St. John Chrysostom believed in the headship of Peter does not bear relevance to whether he believed that James was the judge in Acts 15). The underlined statement is another logical fallacy, a loaded question, in which one asks a rhetorical question such that a direct reply of either yes or no will only serve the agenda of the one asking the question (the classical example is, ‘is it true that you still beat your wife?’).Strawman argument? Likely excuse. Apparently his words do not go down with you very well do they? Cannot accept it,so let us turn the tables. Been there…done that a million times. Is his quote rebuking the primacy-yes or no?
Where did I even mention about infallibility? I have not even touched on the issue yet. What I’m merely pointing out was that at no point in Chapter 11 did Peter speak for the Apostles nor for the whole Church, for that matter. It’s as simple as that.And that is your misunderstanding of the whole point of infallibility. You seem to think that infallibility is for the purpose of ramming the Truth at the expense of conscience.