R
RedFan
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In the Sermon on the Mount, right at the end of the Lord’s Prayer, Jesus is quoted as saying “For if you forgive others their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you” (Matt. 6:14). Is forgiving others enough to avoid judgment – or, more precisely, enough to be judged positively on Judgment Day and have our own sins forgiven?
At the outset, consider that one need not read Matt. 6:14 to speak about “earning” forgiveness. The verse simply says that if we forgive, we will be forgiven. There is no suggestion in the text that forgiveness of the forgiver is a matter of right (as though it were something earned). It could just as easily be a matter of grace. God chooses to forgive those who forgive others (for reasons we need not limn). Period.
Taken literally the verse is not conditional; it is absolute. It is of the form “If X, then Y,” i.e., if we forgive, we will forgiven. Period. Without more. The “more” that other NT writings suggest is necessary for forgiveness of sin may well be necessary, but if it is, then Matt. 6:14 is literally untrue.
I see nothing in the context surrounding the verse that qualifies what appears to be a sufficient condition (as opposed to merely a necessary one) for God’s forgiveness of our offenses. The entire Sermon on the Mount is consistent with the absolute nature of this declaration. (See in particular Matt. 5:7, “Blessed are the merciful, for they shall receive mercy.”)
Moreover, that forgiving leads to forgiveness does not gainsay the existence of other paths to forgiveness. We are told in Matt. 1:21 that Jesus “will save his people from their sins.” We are told in Matt. 9:6 that Jesus has “authority on earth to forgive sins.” These as well are consistent with the absolute nature of the declaration in Matt. 6:14.
So, is it true? If we forgive others, will we be forgiven? Without more?
At the outset, consider that one need not read Matt. 6:14 to speak about “earning” forgiveness. The verse simply says that if we forgive, we will be forgiven. There is no suggestion in the text that forgiveness of the forgiver is a matter of right (as though it were something earned). It could just as easily be a matter of grace. God chooses to forgive those who forgive others (for reasons we need not limn). Period.
Taken literally the verse is not conditional; it is absolute. It is of the form “If X, then Y,” i.e., if we forgive, we will forgiven. Period. Without more. The “more” that other NT writings suggest is necessary for forgiveness of sin may well be necessary, but if it is, then Matt. 6:14 is literally untrue.
I see nothing in the context surrounding the verse that qualifies what appears to be a sufficient condition (as opposed to merely a necessary one) for God’s forgiveness of our offenses. The entire Sermon on the Mount is consistent with the absolute nature of this declaration. (See in particular Matt. 5:7, “Blessed are the merciful, for they shall receive mercy.”)
Moreover, that forgiving leads to forgiveness does not gainsay the existence of other paths to forgiveness. We are told in Matt. 1:21 that Jesus “will save his people from their sins.” We are told in Matt. 9:6 that Jesus has “authority on earth to forgive sins.” These as well are consistent with the absolute nature of the declaration in Matt. 6:14.
So, is it true? If we forgive others, will we be forgiven? Without more?