I don’t think the fact that people are conditioned or influenced by their circumstances means there is not total free will.
You seem to want “total free will” to mean “not conditioned or influenced in any way whatsoever.” I don’t think that this is a reasonable definition, though. Here is why, that would mean that if my wife says to me “please pass the mustard” and I do it, then I don’t have free will because I was responding to her request. I don’t think that is reasonable.
I think we should just say that people have free will if their actions are not totally caused by outside factors. And I think it is clear that we have this kind of free will, partly for the reason I have said. That people grow up in very similar circumstances, but turn out differently. So we can’t account for how people behave only by social, economic, political etc factors.
So, in short, I would say that just because people are influenced does not mean that there is not free will.