A
ASimpleSinner
Guest
Over in the Eastern Christian Forum here at CAF we seem to have come to an impasses on an issue that an Orthodox Christian has presented…
Zaphod:
ASimpleSinner:
When reading the full text of the canon, it does not seem to me to support the notion that anyone who has either (1) been laicized or (2) been received into full communion with the Catholic Church after reception of possibly valid but illicit orders (such as Old Catholic ordination).
How best to respond to this claim that the canon “seems to give a fair bit of leeway to supposed laicized schismatic priests to validly and licity exercise priestly duties, whenever it takes their fancy.”?
Thanks in advance.
To which I respond:As I understand it, Canon 1335 permits those suspended from the exercise of the priestly ministry, to celebrate the sacraments, sacramentals and acts of governance whenever requested by a member of the faithful “for any just cause whatsoever.”
That seems to give a fair bit of leeway to supposed laicized schismatic priests to validly and licity exercise priestly duties, whenever it takes their fancy.
Hardly.
To me it seems rather clear that this is not ***carte blanche *** blanket approval for any and all folks who have either been laicized (which I believe is what the canon is most directly concerned with) or have received ordination from irregular (illicit) sources.Canon 1335 reads: “If a censure prohibits the celebration of sacraments or sacramentals or the placing of an act of governance, the prohibition is suspended whenever it is necessary to care for the faithful in danger of death. If a latae sententiae [automatic] censure has not been declared, the prohibition is also suspended whenever a member of the faithful requests a sacrament or sacramental or an act of governance; a person is permitted to request this for any just cause.”
When reading the full text of the canon, it does not seem to me to support the notion that anyone who has either (1) been laicized or (2) been received into full communion with the Catholic Church after reception of possibly valid but illicit orders (such as Old Catholic ordination).
How best to respond to this claim that the canon “seems to give a fair bit of leeway to supposed laicized schismatic priests to validly and licity exercise priestly duties, whenever it takes their fancy.”?
Thanks in advance.