I
Ilija
Guest
First I want to point out that I did read THIS thread but it doesn’t answer my question.
Here is a verse from Mt 5:17
However in Mt 24:15 (second quote) we clearly see Jesus is telling that prophecy of Daniel is “yet to happen.”
This is a contradiction because Jesus tells us it is fulfilled but also tells us it will happen.
Here is explanation which verses of Daniel are referenced in the book of revelation which are in line with Mt 24:15 that Jesus was referring to:
Dn 7,8b → Rev 13,5
Dn 7,9a → Rev 20,4a
Dn 7,9b → Rev 1,14
Dn 7,10b → Rev 5,11
Dn 7,10c → Rev 20,12
Dn 7,11 → Rev 19,20
We clearly see that Mt 24:15 is not only that Jesus said once, but also apostle Paul is referencing this in the book of revelation.
Question:
How can old testament be considered completely fulfilled if Daniel it was delayed for the second coming of Jesus?
How do we explain contradiction that Jesus is telling us?
Btw. I know the answer is that Jesus did not make a mistake here, because he tells in his quote in Mt 24:15 this:
"let the reader understand"
But unfortunately I do not understand, and it is the only part of old testament eschatology that is beyond my intelligence.
Here is a verse from Mt 5:17
Also Here is a verse from Mt 24:15“Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets. I have come not to abolish but to fulfill.”
The church teaches us that OT eschatology has been fulfilled by the coming of Jesus, and we know Jesus told OT has been fulfilled in Mt 5:17 (first quote), therefore that is clear.“When you see the desolating abomination spoken of through Daniel the prophet standing in the holy place (let the reader understand)"
However in Mt 24:15 (second quote) we clearly see Jesus is telling that prophecy of Daniel is “yet to happen.”
This is a contradiction because Jesus tells us it is fulfilled but also tells us it will happen.
Here is explanation which verses of Daniel are referenced in the book of revelation which are in line with Mt 24:15 that Jesus was referring to:
Dn 7,8b → Rev 13,5
Dn 7,9a → Rev 20,4a
Dn 7,9b → Rev 1,14
Dn 7,10b → Rev 5,11
Dn 7,10c → Rev 20,12
Dn 7,11 → Rev 19,20
We clearly see that Mt 24:15 is not only that Jesus said once, but also apostle Paul is referencing this in the book of revelation.
Question:
How can old testament be considered completely fulfilled if Daniel it was delayed for the second coming of Jesus?
How do we explain contradiction that Jesus is telling us?
Btw. I know the answer is that Jesus did not make a mistake here, because he tells in his quote in Mt 24:15 this:
"let the reader understand"
But unfortunately I do not understand, and it is the only part of old testament eschatology that is beyond my intelligence.
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