Full Knowledge and Sin

[Flavius_Aetius]

What constitutes as having full knowledge that something is a sin? For an example say a lapsed Catholic who was taught in his youth that something was a mortal sin and commits it later on in life would that particular sin be counted against them?

Or is it the other extreme where you have to stop and think “Jesus wouldn’t like this, but I’m going to do it anyways!”

 

[Thoughtfulone]

I’ve often wondered this. Is “full knowledge” simply knowing that the CHURCH tells us that something is a grave sins, or do we have to “know” in our heart that something is a grave sin? For example, I could say that I know that the CC teaches that the use of ABC is a grave sin, but if I don’t believe that it is sinful (after sufficient reflection) and so choose to do it anyway, can I truly be said to have committed this sin KNOWING that it is a grave sin?

 

[thistle]

I’ve often wondered this. Is “full knowledge” simply knowing that the CHURCH tells us that something is a grave sins, or do we have to “know” in our heart that something is a grave sin? For example, I could say that I know that the CC teaches that the use of ABC is a grave sin, but if I don’t believe that it is sinful (after sufficient reflection) and so choose to do it anyway, can I truly be said to have committed this sin KNOWING that it is a grave sin?

People tend to use lack of “full knowledge” as an excuse to sin.
If a person knows the Church teaches something is a grave sin then that is considered full knowledge. Now the person may not fully understand the teaching and should make every effort to understand but not understanding does not let them off the hook. They are bound by the teaching even if they don’t understand it.
Going further, if a person knows the Church teaches something is a grave sin and understands why that is taught but disagrees and does not accept it then by rejecting the teaching such a person commits heresy.

 

[Thoughtfulone]

Thistle, I see what you are saying, but something bothers me.

As an example, let’s say the weatherman said it was going to rain later, and I looked outside to check, and not seeing a cloud in the sky, chose to leave the house sans umbrella and ended up getting rained on later in the day. I could certainly not be said to have left the house KNOWING that it would rain, otherwise, I most certainly would have brought my umbrella or even stayed in. In fact, in this circumstance, I was quite confident that it would NOT rain.

The same applies to full knowledge and sin. I can hardly be said to have full knowledge of the sinfulness of an act if, after doing my due diligence to search and form my conscience, I truly am at odds with the Church on an issue if I am in disagreement on something that is NOT a matter of dogma and therefore potentially fallible.

Vatican 2 stated the importance of forming and following our own conscience, and certainly we must try to form it in line with Church teachings, but in circumstances where there is a disagreement on the gravity of a sin, with conscience on one side and obedience on the other, there seems to be a disturbing gray area.

 

[JimR-OCDS]

I’ve heard theologians argue it both ways, but I tend to agree with those who argue that
full knowledge requires understanding that what you are doing is in fact offending God.

To me, that means its more than just being told that something is a sin, its consciously being aware that what you are about to do is offensive to God and you chose to do it anyway.

The three conditions for mortal sin is not infallible, but is used as a reliable guide.

From here, you yourself have to discern your culpability as you examine yourself against
these three conditions.

Jim

 

[JRKH]

I’ve often wondered this. Is “full knowledge” simply knowing that the CHURCH tells us that something is a grave sins, or do we have to “know” in our heart that something is a grave sin? For example, I could say that I know that the CC teaches that the use of ABC is a grave sin, but if I don’t believe that it is sinful (after sufficient reflection) and so choose to do it anyway, can I truly be said to have committed this sin KNOWING that it is a grave sin?

My short answer to this is yes, that you have still committed a grave sin in full knowledge.

Here is the reason that I say this and it has to do with your comment about “sufficient reflection”.
In the Holy Scripture, Christ gives the “Church” (that is the community) the power to "Bind and Loose’. This same is NOT given to individuals. Therefore, after “sufficient reflection”, or “due diligence”, you find that you are still “at odds”, then one needs to err in favor of the Chruch’s teaching and not that of the individual (you).
WHY - -
Because one can, and indeed must, presume that The Church ALSO excersized prayerfully, “due dilligence” and “sufficient reflection” in coming to the common understanding and teaching as proffered by the Magisterium.

In placing your own personal conclusions ahead of the teachings of the Church, you are violating the Scriptural instruction, from Christ Himself to “Listen to The Church” (Mt 18:15-18)

Peace
James