F
Friar_David_O.Carm
Guest
I know that the Church teaches that the fullness of the Eucharist is found in the Body or the Blood. That one does not need to recieve both forms to recieve the fullness of the Eucharist.
But in the Eastern Churches, mainly the Byzantine rite, we have always recieved both the Body and the Blood though intinction.
I know that there was a heresy in the West that said you had to recieve both and to fight this they start to just give the Body to the laity. After Vatican II this changed.
My question is how does the Church explain this?
Especially in light of Matthew 26:26-29
Matthew 26
26While they were eating, Jesus took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to his disciples, saying, “Take and eat; this is my body.”
27Then he took the cup, gave thanks and offered it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you.
28This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
29I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father’s kingdom.”
But in the Eastern Churches, mainly the Byzantine rite, we have always recieved both the Body and the Blood though intinction.
I know that there was a heresy in the West that said you had to recieve both and to fight this they start to just give the Body to the laity. After Vatican II this changed.
My question is how does the Church explain this?
Especially in light of Matthew 26:26-29
Matthew 26
26While they were eating, Jesus took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to his disciples, saying, “Take and eat; this is my body.”
27Then he took the cup, gave thanks and offered it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you.
28This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
29I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father’s kingdom.”