I was discussing Exodus 21:20-21 and Leviticus 25:44-46 (where God is quoted as saying slaves are property) with someone a few months back and the person stated the passages were not to be taken literally. The problem is that both passages are in the middle of other passages that are to be taken literally. For example the end of Exodus 20 through the beginning of Exodus 24 is a long quote from God containing literal rules to follow, including the Ten Commandments. Yet for those people who state Exodus 21:20-21 (which I understand is only some Christians) they have to explain why a non-literal interpretation is smack dab in the middle of God giving a list of laws.
Well, I agree that saying “it’s non-literal” just like that is unconvincing.
My approach to that text would be to say that it clearly reflects an ancient cultural understanding that slaves are property, but that the divine revelation in the text is the protection (albeit imperfect) afforded to slaves. In other words, your flawed assumption here is that all these laws are simply and directly given by God as timeless truths. Clearly that’s not how OT laws work.
The traditional way to put it would be that God “accommodates” his laws, leading people on by degrees.
I’d go further–I’d say that God was trying to get through to ancient people the truth that slaves are not property, but that they were not yet capable of hearing that truth in its fullness, so it came through, in that particular passage, in a muffled way.
But either way that law is not, in and of itself, an adequate representation of what God has to say about slavery.
For this to pose serious theological problems, you’d have to show that the passage was rejecting a view held by some ancient Hebrews who wanted to punish those who abused slaves even if the slaves didn’t die right away. But even in my sense 2, this isn’t a likely interpretation. It’s far more likely that the law was an attempt to bring
some accountability to those who harmed slaves, and that v. 21 is a concession
C. Determine whether a quote from God can be non-literal. If God the Father or Jesus is quoted as saying something in the Bible, can we say that he literally said it.
First of all, “God the Father” doesn’t say much in Scripture, even as a literary character. “This is my Beloved Son” is about it. What is said in the OT is not said by “God the Father,” since that distinction doesn’t exist. (In traditional Christian thought, Jesus is the one who reveals God and thus the Second Person of the Trinity would be speaking in the OT too, if we are going to distinguish Persons at all. But all the works of the Trinity are indivisible anyway.) The point rather is that anything ascribed to God
except the things said and done by the incarnate Jesus cannot, by definition, be said literally. You can’t speak of God literally, except in the Incarnation.
I’m not talking about whether what is said is a parable or something like that, but if those words (translated from the original language) is an accurate representation of what was said. The Bible writers are often said to have been guided by the Holy Spirit, so I would hope that he would not allow for misquotes or inaccurate paraphrasing.
God clearly allowed all sorts of things that many pious people would not expect.
This is another example of your imposing certain assumptions on the text and then demanding that Christians measure up to them. You just don’t have the right to do that when talking about someone else’s religion.
Why do you “hope” anything of the sort? It makes no sense.
D. Showing that if a passage is non-literal in nature that it doesn’t show God as being reprehensible. So God says or does something that atheists find objectionable. Catholics state that the passage detail what was said or done is not literal. If the figurative reading of that passage still shows God as being objectionable then it is imperative that the believer demonstrate a different reading or why that reading is not objectionable. Again, solely stating that a passage is not literal is quite insufficient.
I agree. But so is assuming that whatever meaning happens to seem obvious to you is “literal” and is the default meaning given to the text.
E. Determine which non-literal interpretation is to be used and why. Let’s take Matthew 24:29. It’s a list of signs that all the world will see when Jesus returns. Matthew 24:34 says that it will happen within the generation of the people Jesus was speaking to. Now I think it’s safe to say this is not literal. The stars did not fall from the sky. My understanding is that Catholic Church believes in a form of preterism. There are several forms and some are in conflict with each other. There are also those who use futurism to interpret these passages (think the “Left Behind” folks). In short, when speaking to atheists about those passages which have multiple non-literal interpretations it’s vital that the believer explains why we should go with one such interpretation over all of the others.
I don’t really see why the believer needs to explain anything of the sort to
you, unless you are seriously proposing to embrace one of them.
If there is a God, and if God revealed Scripture, then obviously that rules out any interpretation that is immoral or false. It makes no sense to say “you must prove to me, based on some set of rules that I have invented or learned from some other group of Christians to which you don’t belong, that your meaning is more plausible than the obviously wrong or wicked meanings.”
Again, the problem with this whole discussion is that people don’t really sit down with the Bible, figure out what it “literally says,” and then build their religion around it. Some people claim to do this, but they are obviously not really doing it.
Edwin