M
Mr.Ruggerio
Guest
Has anyone noticed this phenomenon recently–
As part of the defense of marriage movement and in response to the gay marriage debate, many fundamentalists have been proclaiming that marriage is something holy, for life, must be only between one man and one woman, instituted by God, etc.
My point is that in defense of marriage they have been using language and terms that make marriage sound almost like a SACRAMENT (not that they’d actually use that word to describe marriage). Because they would generally deny that sacraments have any role in grace (faith being all that is necessary), why should the act of marrying be regarded any differently with respect to the dispensation of grace. At best, logically, shouldn’t the fundies see marriage as just another sign or symbol, so to speak, but it cannot infuse grace onto the soul (as that would contradict their view of imputed righteousness). Also, just as one can be rebaptised, logically, can’t one remarry as well? It’s a stark inconsistency for them I believe that someone should point out.
I wonder if that might be a means of getting them to see that baptism, for example, could also be a means of grace as well.
Ex opere operato. Any thoughts…
As part of the defense of marriage movement and in response to the gay marriage debate, many fundamentalists have been proclaiming that marriage is something holy, for life, must be only between one man and one woman, instituted by God, etc.
My point is that in defense of marriage they have been using language and terms that make marriage sound almost like a SACRAMENT (not that they’d actually use that word to describe marriage). Because they would generally deny that sacraments have any role in grace (faith being all that is necessary), why should the act of marrying be regarded any differently with respect to the dispensation of grace. At best, logically, shouldn’t the fundies see marriage as just another sign or symbol, so to speak, but it cannot infuse grace onto the soul (as that would contradict their view of imputed righteousness). Also, just as one can be rebaptised, logically, can’t one remarry as well? It’s a stark inconsistency for them I believe that someone should point out.
I wonder if that might be a means of getting them to see that baptism, for example, could also be a means of grace as well.
Ex opere operato. Any thoughts…