Gay Marriage Phobia

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Yes. 1A only precludes a narrow set of religion-based laws, e.g. to join or attend a church, etc.

See the “criticisms” section immediatly following the ref I gave before.

God’s law becomes man’s law through the political process. Some Boeis try to prevent that by inventing a broader meaning of 1A.
What religious-based disapproval is enshrined in state law?

I acknowledge you do not know any cases where a federal judge reached for due process when he wanted to make new law.

What is the broader meaning of 1a?

Does god’s law trump man’s law?
 
What religious-based disapproval is enshrined in state law? I acknowledge you do not know any cases where a federal judge reached for due process when he wanted to make new law. What is the broader meaning of 1a? Does god’s law trump man’s law?
See above.
 
That is not an answer. That is a punt.
You keep attempting to assert that anything anyone holds as true is a belief akin to a religious belief. I refuted this by pointing out that someone can hold something as true by looking to history and saying that every time we do a we get b so let’s not do a anymore. I then gave you the example of how the founding father’s did this. You keep asking me to support this. I have sufficiently supported my claim until you dig into the relevant history and tell me where my premise is flawed.
 
You keep attempting to assert that anything anyone holds as true is a belief akin to a religious belief.
No, I said that anything held as true without justification, i.e., by faith.
I refuted this by pointing out that someone can hold something as true by looking to history and saying that every time we do a we get b so let’s not do a anymore. I then gave you the example of how the founding father’s did this. You keep asking me to support this. I have sufficiently supported my claim until you dig into the relevant history and tell me where my premise is flawed.
All of that rests on various unstated and unsubstantiated beliefs. I pointed out several of these to you.

We also discussed the Darwinian theory in greater detail and I pointed out the probelms with that line of argument as well.
 
Jewish and Muslim religions hold the same views on homosexuality and homosexual marriage as Christians – try again.
#1, they are insignificant in terms of voters, and #2, most Jews are not observant of OT prohibitions of homosexuality.
 
No, an argument that ascribes goodness to survival of the fittest is a Darwinian argument.
I did not do that. I said that historically every time a society has exterminated large portions of its population this society has failed. Therefore we can ascertain that any society which condones and promotes the extermination of a large portion of its population is not a stable governmental policy. We can also ascertain that this society will fall, either by force or withering, in fairly short order. The Nazi’s fell by force because they attempted to spread the views to an unwilling world through invasion. Communist Russia fell by withering because they killed to many of their own leaders to continue functioning properly.
Just google “Darwin Nietzsche” and you’ll find plenty. Here is one:
Why do you keep telling me to do your research for you, but insist that I cannot say the same thing to you?
My point is that we have in Naziism a case study in the consequences of letting Darwinian logic dictate moral values.
But, I wasn’t using Darwinian logic – you simply asserted that I was so you could make another public proclamation of your biases.
You presume to replace religious moral values with Darwinian moral values, to test the value of a law by its anticipated effects on the survival of a society. That was Hitler’s criteria for the Holocaust.
I never said that. I said that it is possible to hold something as true and not base that on a religious view. I sufficiently proved this so you accused my argument of being Darwinian when it had nothing to do with Darwinism.
Setting that admittedly inflamatory example aside, how do you propose to demonstrate your claim that human rights are necessary for social survival? Describe for me the methodology? Does Rome, say, count as a successful soceity or a failed one?
Step 1) (for the fifth time) Study the history of totalitarian societies which did not provide rights to their citizens.

Step 2) Observe that every single one of them fell in rather short order.

Step 3) Logically deduce that one cannnot build a functioning society by stripping the rights of those who make up that society.
Finally, what is the argument for using social survival as a legal critiera? Just because a practice leads, ultimately, to social change doesn’t mean that it is atrocious. People value their lives as well as their descendents lives. What you propose would make people slaves to their descendants. What is the justification of that?
As for this argument it is too ridiculous to even bother defending against. We’ll be slaves to our descendant!? C’mon – that’s just a ridiculous statement.
 
#1, they are insignificant in terms of voters, and #2, most Jews are not observant of OT prohibitions of homosexuality.
I said “I cannot think on one law off the top of my head that is based on purely Christian ideals.” This means that is any group besides Christians also holds that ideal the law is not based on a purely Christian ideal. The immorality of homosexuality is not exclusive to Christians. Are you seriously incapable of reading the words in front of you and determining their meaning?
 
I said that historically every time a society has exterminated large portions of its population this society has failed…
Sorry, but your methodology is extremely unscientific. I don’t know if you rally expect me to take that argument seriously or not.
Why do you keep telling me to do your research for you, but insist that I cannot say the same thing to you?
It’s not a matter of researching the matieral, it’s a matter of constructing a logical argument.
But, I wasn’t using Darwinian logic – you simply asserted that I was so you could make another public proclamation of your biases.
It is classical Darwinianism.
I never said that. I said that it is possible to hold something as true and not base that on a religious view.
You have yet to put foward an argument for the criteria you put forward.
Step 1) (for the fifth time) Study the history of totalitarian societies which did not provide rights to their citizens. Step 2) Observe that every single one of them fell in rather short order.
That is not a valid methodology. First of all, you are confusing correlation with causation. Second of all, you are not conducting a complete sampling by considering only “totalitarian” socieites. And, thirdly, you have yet to explain your criteria in any useful way. Was Rome a failure?
Step 3) Logically deduce that one cannnot build a functioning society by stripping the rights of those who make up that society.
Here you are leaping from future outcome to current functioning to ordering of rights. You just make one logical leap after another.
As for this argument it is too ridiculous to even bother defending against. We’ll be slaves to our descendant!? C’mon – that’s just a ridiculous statement.
It’s exactly what you are proposing.
 
Sorry, but your methodology is extremely unscientific. I don’t know if you rally expect me to take that argument seriously or not.

It’s not a matter of researching the matieral, it’s a matter of constructing a logical argument.

It is classical Darwinianism.

You have yet to put foward an argument for the criteria you put forward.

That is not a valid methodology. First of all, you are confusing correlation with causation. Second of all, you are not conducting a complete sampling by considering only “totalitarian” socieites. And, thirdly, you have yet to explain your criteria in any useful way. Was Rome a failure?

Here you are leaping from future outcome to current functioning to ordering of rights. You just make one logical leap after another.

It’s exactly what you are proposing.
You’re statements are so completely incorrect that I’m not even going to bother refuting them. I think this conversation has gone on long enough for everyone to draw their own conclusions about the premises being put forth.
 
No one is making this claim. Could you please answer my question.

Just because something can be supported with the tenants of a religion does that mean that is can only be, or must be, supported with the tenants of that religion?
No, arguments should be based in reason. That may include both religious and non religious arguments, but that is not what this is about.
 
You’re statements are so completely incorrect that I’m not even going to bother refuting them. I think this conversation has gone on long enough for everyone to draw their own conclusions about the premises being put forth.
I’m sorry if I’ve shown any disrespect to your Darwinian religion.
 
See above.
I acknowledge you do not know of any instance where religious-based disapproval is enshrined in law. Therefore, Boise’ statement that religious-based disapproval cannot be enshrined in law is not a change to current understanding of 1a.

I acknowledge you do not know if man’s law trumps man’s law.

If you want to use claims like this in the future, make them more general. For example, don’t make statements about court pleadings. These are very easy to check. Don’ get drawn into discussions of legal points. These, too, are too easy to check, and it’s likely you will encounter someone who really knows about them. Gather a group of quotes, and make the general statement that there is an assault on religious values and an attempt is being made to drive religion out of the public square.

Say the relativists are trying to destroy the very foundations of morality, and we all know morality comes from god through the Church. So, that means they are trying to drive god out of society. What’s next? Christians? Jews? All god fearing people? If your claims are flexible and general, it’s hard to get caught up defending them, and they will have a wider scope and appeal.

So, I’ve enjoyed the discussion and wish you luck
 
I acknowledge you do not know of any instance where religious-based disapproval is enshrined in law. Therefore, Boise’ statement that religious-based disapproval cannot be enshrined in law is not a change to current understanding of 1a.
Believe what you wish. If you have nothing new to add to the discussion, we’re done here.
 
Not under the US Constitution for legal purposes. Other than that, it can matter to whom ever chooses to care.
You mean it depends on who is currently interpreting the document. Despite the hype things get changed, invented, reversed, reinterpreted and people keep saying that religion plays no role. Kinda like saying judges are unbiased.
 
You mean it depends on who is currently interpreting the document. Despite the hype things get changed, invented, reversed, reinterpreted and people keep saying that religion plays no role. Kinda like saying judges are unbiased.
Which is why the most important step in forming constitutional law is determining who will sit on the bench.
 
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