P
PassingThru
Guest
Eureka Abu! You have at least started to directly address our issue! You did it like a 12 year old child by talking around me to John. But, I will ignore it for the sake of actual progress.Nice to see you around, John21652. The confused, irrelevant and illogical opinions still exist – like a bad penny they can be counted on appearing, but they can do nothing to counter the reality of the natural moral law and conscience.
BTW, you may have noticed by now the hackneyed attempt to tout perverted anal orgasm, as equivalent to oral stimulation of the genitals which is not orgasmic, as though the Church is irrelevant as well as contradictory in confirming and condemning anal intercourse as unnatural, and therefore immoral – the usual inability to see the wood for the trees. This despite the clear distinction between the two – like chalk to cheese.
Now, you played a good game by changing the rules a bit. We have said a few times now, that neither instance of anal or oral sex was to completion, and both were in due course of normal marital relations. Now, you have turned into a bold face liar, so I can see you instead typed:
which, of course is not what I said. But, regardless, you actually came close, so, a cookie for you.BTW, you may have noticed by now the hackneyed attempt to tout perverted anal orgasm, as equivalent to oral stimulation of the genitals which is not orgasmic
Since I seem to have your attention, will you do me the honor of answering the following:
If a married couple participated in either anal or oral sex, not to completion, as part of marital sex, what is the status of both instances as it relates to its natural-ness, or its moral state?
My take is that you have waffled on this one. Please answer as clearly as possible.
Thanks
PT