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1Lord1Faith
Guest
Now maybe we’re getting somewhere. So, after 3k years, culture has finally caught up to be a closer resemblance of “divine morality” in the 20th century, regarding women’s equality anyway.due to the change in cultural perceptions and demands, the Church is more able to assert effectively a stance on these issues that is more in line with divine morality
So what helped to keep women in a position below that of men? It wouldn’t have anything to do with Genesis or Corinthians would it? And when people started leaving the Churches in the 1960’s we lost our cultural attachment to Scripture thereby throwing off a patriarchal culture in order that we may come to a more “divine morality”. Is that what you meant to say?
Umm…but doctrine is based largely on Scripture. See the issue?Paul – acting alone – does not define doctrine
Of course not, hence my questioning of Genesis 3 as a basis for anything doctrinal, and hence my basis for referring to Scripture as inerrant, whatever that means.Moreover, not every word of Scripture has doctrinal content, so we cannot assert that the presence of his words in Scripture demands that his words be taken as doctrinally binding.
Yes, I realize that, and yet, Aquinas used Paul’s assertions to justify an all male priesthood well into the Middle Ages. So there must have been some doctrinal authority to the assertions, because I assume Aquinas knew what he was doing :man_shrugging:t3: Maybe not.The Church formulates doctrine. The Church has not stated, as a doctrinally-binding on faith and morals, that Paul’s assertions about women’s roles is irreformable doctrine.
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