S
StudentMI
Guest
Yep, another thread on that. Before someone says search for other threads, those are closed, and I’d like to discuss the topic.
What can one say? The order in the Bible, directly from God, to conquer the land of Canaan and put the inhabitants to the sword… how does that not qualify as genocide?
I’ve seen lots of attempted justifications. Oh the book of Judges says there are Canaanites still left; Joshua is allegorical; the inhabitants were pure evil; etc. But I still wonder, how was a Canaanite baby guilty of anything? Even if the Canaanites were guilty of the most heinous crimes and human sacrifices known to man (which archaeology and historical research does not show), how were the babies guilty?
What do people think about this? Is anyone else troubled by it? Has anyone found an explanation that makes sense?
What can one say? The order in the Bible, directly from God, to conquer the land of Canaan and put the inhabitants to the sword… how does that not qualify as genocide?
I’ve seen lots of attempted justifications. Oh the book of Judges says there are Canaanites still left; Joshua is allegorical; the inhabitants were pure evil; etc. But I still wonder, how was a Canaanite baby guilty of anything? Even if the Canaanites were guilty of the most heinous crimes and human sacrifices known to man (which archaeology and historical research does not show), how were the babies guilty?
What do people think about this? Is anyone else troubled by it? Has anyone found an explanation that makes sense?