P
Phemie
Guest
It could become a reason for an annulment if the condition was known but not revealed – because then it would come down to consent.I see it, thanks. My read is that physically incapable of performing - no marriage, physically incapable of having children - marriage OK. Not sure why this is but it I think that is the rule.
Possibly off topic question - I have always heard that inability of one spouse to have children is a reason for an anullment, but based on this requirement, it seems like that would not be true, because that would not invalidate the marriage unless there was deception on that point.
For example if the guy had had a vasectomy (yeah, I know, good Catholic men don’t) and didn’t reveal it before the wedding the marriage could be declared invalid. That could happen if the woman had had every intention of having children and would have opted not to marry him if she’d known of the situation. IOW, she didn’t have full knowledge of the situation so wasn’t able to give consent.