Actually, no.
“
Matthew 28:19 in particular only canonizes a later ecclesiastical situation, that its universalism is
contrary to the facts of early Christian history, and
its Trinitarian formula (is) foreign to the mouth of Jesus. (The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, Vol. 4, page 2637, Baptism)”
“
Critical scholarship, on the whole, rejects the traditional attribution of the tripartite baptismal formula to Jesus and regards it as of
later origin. (The Philosophy of the Church Fathers, Vol. 1, Harry Austryn Wolfson, 1964, pg 143)”
“It is often affirmed that the words in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost are not the ipsissima verba [exact words] of Jesus, but…a
later liturgical addition. (The Tyndale New Testament Commentaries, I, 275)”
“The testimony for the wide distribution of the simple baptismal formula [in the Name of Jesus] down into the second century is so overwhelming that even
in Matthew 28:19, the Trinitarian formula was later inserted. (Wilhelm Bousset, Kyrios Christianity, page 295)”
“
In place of the words “baptizing… Spirit” we should probably read simply "into my name," (Peake’s Commentary on the Bible, 1929, page 723).”
1John 5:7 is another verse used to support the Trinity. The evidence is so overwhelming that it was added to the Bible, that it has been removed from all modern non-Catholic Bibles.
You can read more in my recent post on the topic in this form:
Documentation that the Church changed the way we baptize?
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=702284