S
Scaun
Guest
I’m a Christian, but lately I’ve been wondering about God and his order of killing babies. Now I sort of already imagine how a skeptic is going to object (or the ‘skeptic’ inside me, if you will), so I’ll put it in the form of an argument:1. The Christian God is described as being morally perfect, therefore completely just.
2. The Christian God is recorded in the Scriptures as having odered the killing of babies (e.g.: the Tenth Plague)
4. The killing of babies is unjust.
5. Therefore, given the incoherence of the Christian God, he does not exist.
First, to begin with, I support the idea that morality is based in the character and nature of God; therefore I do not support the idea that God is above morality (“amoral”). Given what I said, if he were to act immoraly he would be acting inconsistently with his own character, which is not possible. Therefore he is “moral”, and not only “moral” but “morally perfect”.
I assume that the Biblical record is correct. If not, then there are some big problems. I can believe that there are copyist errors, but believing someone inserted a whole passage seems way off to me.
And now here is the most important part of the argument, that killing babies is unjust. Now for the whole argument I suggest we work with only one example, namely, the Tenth Plague. I say that killing babies is unjust because they are being victims of something they didn’t commit. That is, God was against their fathers, the Egyptians. I do not see how their sons were related. And yes, I’m aware the Egyptians also killed Israel’s babies, but I do not imagine as God giving payback like this, especially when innocents (babies) are at stake.
The main question is this, because this is on what the argument rests:Was the killing of the babies by God in the given context unjust?
By the way, this isn’t a faith threatening question. I won’t give up Christianity for this. But even so, this issue bugs me… a lot.
Note that to be able to find a good answer to this question, it is necessary to examine it critically first.
Thank you for taking time to read this.
May God bless you,
Scaun
2. The Christian God is recorded in the Scriptures as having odered the killing of babies (e.g.: the Tenth Plague)
4. The killing of babies is unjust.
5. Therefore, given the incoherence of the Christian God, he does not exist.
First, to begin with, I support the idea that morality is based in the character and nature of God; therefore I do not support the idea that God is above morality (“amoral”). Given what I said, if he were to act immoraly he would be acting inconsistently with his own character, which is not possible. Therefore he is “moral”, and not only “moral” but “morally perfect”.
I assume that the Biblical record is correct. If not, then there are some big problems. I can believe that there are copyist errors, but believing someone inserted a whole passage seems way off to me.
And now here is the most important part of the argument, that killing babies is unjust. Now for the whole argument I suggest we work with only one example, namely, the Tenth Plague. I say that killing babies is unjust because they are being victims of something they didn’t commit. That is, God was against their fathers, the Egyptians. I do not see how their sons were related. And yes, I’m aware the Egyptians also killed Israel’s babies, but I do not imagine as God giving payback like this, especially when innocents (babies) are at stake.
The main question is this, because this is on what the argument rests:Was the killing of the babies by God in the given context unjust?
By the way, this isn’t a faith threatening question. I won’t give up Christianity for this. But even so, this issue bugs me… a lot.
Note that to be able to find a good answer to this question, it is necessary to examine it critically first.
Thank you for taking time to read this.
May God bless you,
Scaun