T
Touchstone
Guest
I don’t claim that. I have no way to know if it’s metaphysically necessary or not. It’s an unknown.This is all just assertions and principles based on your purely philosophical world view. You are assuming a purely naturalistic world view which is not metaphysically necessary;
That is just to beg the question of what defines ‘truth’. And in any case, it doesn’t matter – you’re free to define it in whatever mystical or intuition-satisfying way you like. Science can’t be bothered. The ‘truth’ of science is just practical, not cosmic or ultimate: natural explanations for natural phenomena. So when our logic, our rules become problematic, we can insist that nature is “wrong” or “irrational” and disbelieve our lying eyes, or we can hone our tools such that the aid in better understanding and better performing models. The epistemology is grounded in practice, in real world performance and testing.and you are falsely mixing this up with science as if the two are the same. You are being misleading; either that or you have been mislead. Empirical Science cannot determine the truth or false hood of logic; it doesn’t have any epistemological authority to do so.
Claiming your alternative epistemology has some kind of trumping “authority” just generates a shrug. So what can this authority do to show its authority, or its potency at all? I can’t think what it can do to assert itself. And all the while science goes on and builds the knowledge base, and enables innovations and new developments of medicines, tools, machines, etc. It’s authority is conceded by you every time you take an aspirin or get on a plane. The authority you’re pointing at is utterly impotent, isn’t it?
This is the key to your misunderstanding. Classical physics as in classical laws are not synonymous to metaphysical laws. This is something you have assumed. That physical reality has become counter intuitive is not a good reason to think that therefore this counter-intuitiveness is a sign that logic has no objectivity, it purely means that the laws of classical physics are not absolute.
The point was that our logic preceded (by a long shot, it goes all the back to Aristotle at least!) and informed the development of classical physics, and it was of great utility in that respect. Classical physics is one of the “fruits” of those intuitive rules. It’s not synonomous with classical physics, but prior to it. It just turns out that it fails in other areas we’ve now explored a bit.
No, see above.Again you are confusing classical physics with metaphysical logic.
It’s comprehensible – the math is tight and thorough, and that is as comprehensible as comprehensible as it gets in physics. You’re missing the force of the empirical witness here. It’s not that we don’t understand the probability distribution, the overlay of “nowhere” and “everywhere” at the same time as a mix of probabilities in the universal phase space. It’s that it does resolve and cohere while it rebukes our intuitional rules, the innate logic we derive from macrophysical experience, and which some of us mistake for “cosmic metaphysics”.Your whole argument is a straw-man, since it all amounts to the argument that metaphysical logic and classical physics is synonymous, and thus to disprove classical physics in one context is to disprove the objective realism of logic. Like I said, that which is in comprehensible is not evidence of that which is contradictory.
Sure, that’s the axiom of science – there is a logic in there somewhere to be found and developed. Nature is just not beholden to human prejudices, though, so if we want to understand it deeply, we accomodate nature by adjusting or abandoning our problematic intuitions in favor of what works.Epistemologically speaking, given are finite state of knowledge, I dare say that there are logically consistent reasons why QM can perform some of the things that it does.
-TS
