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dkward2
Guest
My father pointed out another interesting verse to me through some email.
Number 12:6-8
*And he said, Hear now my words: If there be a prophet among you, * the LORD will make myself known unto him in a vision, [and] will speak unto him in a dream.
My servant Moses [is] not so, who [is] faithful in all mine house.
With him will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the similitude of the LORD shall he behold: wherefore then were ye not afraid to speak against my servant Moses? *
I found it to be interesting. Jehovah seems to be clearly saying that he will speak directly to Moses, not through visions, dreams, etc. The LORD will be “apparent” to Moses and speak mouth to mouth.
Mouth may not be a literal mouth, but the LORD himself says he appears to Moses. If Jesus says no one has seen God, which He does, what can this mean?*
Number 12:6-8
*And he said, Hear now my words: If there be a prophet among you, * the LORD will make myself known unto him in a vision, [and] will speak unto him in a dream.
My servant Moses [is] not so, who [is] faithful in all mine house.
With him will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the similitude of the LORD shall he behold: wherefore then were ye not afraid to speak against my servant Moses? *
I found it to be interesting. Jehovah seems to be clearly saying that he will speak directly to Moses, not through visions, dreams, etc. The LORD will be “apparent” to Moses and speak mouth to mouth.
Mouth may not be a literal mouth, but the LORD himself says he appears to Moses. If Jesus says no one has seen God, which He does, what can this mean?*