S
Spirithound
Guest
This just in from my Baptist source:
Romans 3:23 declares that Mary must have been a sinner.
Also, God worked through huge numbers of sinful people, therefore, He still would have worked through Mary in spite of her sinfulness. Moreover, it would have been a break from the tradition of using sinful people to have made her sinless.
Help?
Romans 3:23 declares that Mary must have been a sinner.
Also, God worked through huge numbers of sinful people, therefore, He still would have worked through Mary in spite of her sinfulness. Moreover, it would have been a break from the tradition of using sinful people to have made her sinless.
Help?