Now you are making another argument. You lumped beastiality and pedapheila (or was it adultry?) with homosexuality. So I highlighted one difference. I don’t recall Jesus saying anything about homosexuality one way or the other.
That argument has been done to death in this thread, but I’ll restate it again.
He didn’t have to. The moral law made it clear that homosexual behavior was abominable, and Jesus came not to abolish the law but fulfill the law. Anything he established that was contrary to something stated in the Old Testament, He CLEARLY said he was doing so, “You have heard, ‘an eye for an eye,’ but I say to you, love your enemies…” and so forth. If Jesus had intended to change the prohibition against homosexuality, He would have done so by saying something like, “You have heard, 'it is an abomination to lie with man as one lies with a woman, but I say to you…”
BUT HE DIDN’T.
In fact, when asked about marriage, He CLEARLY affirmed marriage as it as existed since the beginning of time: “In this way a man shall leave his mother and cleave unto his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.”
In addition, the Apostles, who were taught by Jesus himself, reiterated that homosexual behavior was immoral, as did the early Church fathers (who were taught by the Apostles).
Polygamy is not by itself a sin or inherently immoral. If it were, it would have been immoral during biblical times as well as today. It is an excellent example, however, for the belief that what is moral can change over time, especially in the arena of sexual relations. If polygamy can go from acceptance to immoral, then why cannot homosexuality go from immoral to accepted?
Polygamy was allowed in the Old Testament for the purposes of populating the earth. If it comes to the point where the world’s population is so scarce that it’s necessary for a man to have more than one wife in order to populate the Earth, God may decide to allow it again. But as God CLEARLY taught through the teachings of His Son, polygamy is now longer acceptable.
God can change His law. We can’t. And God’s law, as taught by the Church, is that polygamy is immoral.
Is the gift of sexual intercourse only for procreative funcitons. Should not a married couple be entitled to find sexual gratification with each other in a variety of ways? How is it a misue of the unitive function of sex?
The last two sentences of your question are contradictions.
The only type of sexual gratification that is unitive AND procreative is intercourse. If “other types” are used as foreplay within the bounds of married couple (and assuming the spouses aren’t regarding one another as objects, or with pure lust as opposed to love) they MAY be acceptable. But intercourse is the ultimate expression of the unitive and procreative aspect of sex, and therefore every act of marital love must include it.
Have you ever read
Good News About Sex and Marriage by Christopher West? It answers your question excellently and in greater detail than I can go into.
The bible itself does not seem to focus on what goes on between two people nearly as much as people who read the bible tend to focus on these things.
You must not read the Bible all that much. Moreover, I’d say people themselves, and our society as a whole, is very focused on the issue – which brings it to the forefront.