"God would no longer have mercy on him?"

[300WhiteKnights]

I was reading 2 Maccabees 9: 13 and I am confused by the verse, “Then this vile man vowed to the Lord, who would no longer have mercy on him,…”

Why does it say the God would not have mercy on this evil king? True, he killed the jews and was their persecutor, but he converted in the end! He himself actually planned to become a jew but never lived long enough. What could this verse possible mean?

In the Lord mercy is endless, and the only sins he cannot forgive are the ones we are not willing to repent for. How do we interpret this verse?

 

[jaimeleglise]

Probably in Old Testament times they were unaware of God’s endless mercy because Jesus hadn’t come yet. Just a guess.

 

[Sirach2]

Isn’t it true that desperate people make vows to God, thinking that He will relieve them of their sufferings? I believe this was true here, that his sufferings were so great that he realized he was powerless, and appealed to God for mercy. However, this line of scripture indicates that he will not receive the mercy of healing from God, despite his desperate vow. He died of his sufferings, justly imposed by God.

God will bring us to our knees so that we may repent of our evil. It is a blessing of mercy that allows the person to search his heart, whereas no other means had been effective. God desires to save us through inflicting these punishments.

This scripture did not mean that there was no mercy for him in* eternal life*, for he had repented … whether it was with imperfect contrition (which is salvific) or perfect contrition. I believe this verse meant there would be no mercy for his physical sufferings.

 

[littlestsouls2]

Mercy is for the contrite of heart. With that in mind, here is the Haydock 1859 Biblical commentary:

**Ver. 13. **Not like. Because his repentance was not for the offence committed against God, but barely on account of his present sufferings. (Challoner) — For these he really grieved, 1 Machabees vi. 11. Yet was not sorry for the offence against God and men. So the damned acknowledge that their punishments are inflicted on account of their sins, yet have not true repentance. (Worthington) — In like manner Esau repented for the loss of his birthright, Hebrews xii. 17. (Menochius) — Epiphanes had abandoned God, who now laughs at him, (Proverbs i. 26.) as some of the Machabees had threatened, chap. vii. 14, 7, 9, 31, 2, 5, 6.[14, 17, 19, 31, 32, 35, 36.?] He is the model of false penitents, who are actuated by servile fear.

 

[Sirach2]

**Ver. 13. **Not like. Because his repentance was not for the offence committed against God, but barely on account of his present sufferings. (Challoner) — For these he really grieved, 1 Machabees vi. 11. Yet was not sorry for the offence against God and men. He is the model of false penitents, who are actuated by servile fear.

Servile fear, in our faith, is often referred to as “imperfect contrition” based on fear of hell, rather than offending God. Yet we are taught that this suffices for absolution in our confessions. Do you see it differently? It is possible he was saved, despite his lack of perfect contrition.

 

[glendab]

God’s Mercy is contingent on the soul turning to God in repentance. He cannot give His mercy until one asks for it.

I was reading 2 Maccabees 9: 13 and I am confused by the verse, “Then this vile man vowed to the Lord, who would no longer have mercy on him,…”

Why does it say the God would not have mercy on this evil king? True, he killed the jews and was their persecutor, but he converted in the end! He himself actually planned to become a jew but never lived long enough. What could this verse possible mean?

In the Lord mercy is endless, and the only sins he cannot forgive are the ones we are not willing to repent for. How do we interpret this verse?

Do you think a life that is wasted in evil pursuits can be put off so easily at the point of death? One of the things we pray about in the Church is that we not die a “sudden and un-provided death” simply because we don’t want get caught by death while living in mortal sins the outcome of which is hell.

No the mercy of God can be put off only so long a person dies and goes to Hell. Don’t fall into the sin of presumption. It is a very sad state to live in and is equated often with moral relativism and other such nonsense.

As fro the story I get a different idea from it - the bigger picture of God striking for Israel one of their enemies and how God **does act **on our behalf sometimes in the battles of life in general. Being and enemy of God’s people can get one struck down by God Himself and although this doesn’t happen all the time, it does.

Glenda

 

[ready]

I was reading 2 Maccabees 9: 13 and I am confused by the verse, “Then this vile man vowed to the Lord, who would no longer have mercy on him,…”

Why does it say the God would not have mercy on this evil king? True, he killed the jews and was their persecutor, but he converted in the end! He himself actually planned to become a jew but never lived long enough. What could this verse possible mean?

In the Lord mercy is endless, and the only sins he cannot forgive are the ones we are not willing to repent for. How do we interpret this verse?

The vile man was not truly repentant, according to the Haydock Commentary, no? So he got punished – God’s mercy is as infinite as His justice, according to Church dogma. God bless you.

 

[littlestsouls2]

Servile fear, in our faith, is often referred to as “imperfect contrition” based on fear of hell, rather than offending God. Yet we are taught that this suffices for absolution in our confessions. Do you see it differently? It is possible he was saved, despite his lack of perfect contrition.

I accept the Church’s teaching on the efficacy of imperfect contrition in the Sacrament of Penance. Haydock says that his repentance was false; his sorrow was selfish, without reference to God, so he lacked contrition. From this I infer that Haydock means that the man was solely motivated by servile fear.

God bless.

 

[COPLAND_3]

Only God knows the heart of a man whether he is truly repentant. Whatever his eternal fate was, God was no doubt as merciful as that man’s heart genuinely was.

 

[luvbp681]

I am pretty sure the author is talking about Antiachos Epiphenes who was truly evil who descecrated his alter in Jerusalem; God doesnt not need to show his mercy to a person who was not repetent and showed the Jews no mercy at all

 

[ready]

I am pretty sure the author is talking about Antiachos Epiphenes who was truly evil who descecrated his alter in Jerusalem; God doesnt not need to show his mercy to a person who was not repetent and showed the Jews no mercy at all

Perhaps so. Whoever the man was, the Scriptures describes him as a “vile” man, not as a “repentant” man, so we should have no difficulty understanding his treatment by God. God bless you.

 

[ready]

Perhaps so. Whoever the man was, the Scriptures describes him as a “vile” man, not as a “repentant” man, so we should have no difficulty understanding his treatment by God. God bless you.

My “perhaps so” was in reference to the first part of luvbp681’s post (the part about Antiachos), not in reference to the second part of his post: for it is absolutely true that God need not have mercy on an evil man like Antiochos. God bless you.