M
MysticMissMisty
Guest
Salvete, omnes!
We read in Genesis that, after the flood, God permits Noah (and, presumably? his descendents) to eat meat.
However, it would seem that, before this time, men were vegetarians.
Indeed, in the Book of Enoch (which, granted, is non-canonical but I’ve been discussing it on another thread in another context and came across this), it seems to be implied that the giants were doing evil at the time before the flood in injuring fish and other animals to eat their flesh and drink their blood. (Apparently, the word “injure” is there used in the text, potentially implying that the injury to animals is not right.) I suppose that, when looking at a text like Enoch, we have to use caution, though I’ve proposed on another thread that, while a book may not be considered canonical/inspired, some traditions contained therein may have validity.
So, then, what changed? Why are we now permitted to eat meat but previously were apparently not?
We read in Genesis that, after the flood, God permits Noah (and, presumably? his descendents) to eat meat.
However, it would seem that, before this time, men were vegetarians.
Indeed, in the Book of Enoch (which, granted, is non-canonical but I’ve been discussing it on another thread in another context and came across this), it seems to be implied that the giants were doing evil at the time before the flood in injuring fish and other animals to eat their flesh and drink their blood. (Apparently, the word “injure” is there used in the text, potentially implying that the injury to animals is not right.) I suppose that, when looking at a text like Enoch, we have to use caution, though I’ve proposed on another thread that, while a book may not be considered canonical/inspired, some traditions contained therein may have validity.
So, then, what changed? Why are we now permitted to eat meat but previously were apparently not?