I thought I already answered that one for you.
Nope -
responding to a question is not the same as
answering it.
You have
responded by answering
other questions, such as when you responded to a question about
how you decided which beliefs of yours should apply to others by saying that it was none of my business
what beliefs you held which did not apply to others. Not what I had asked.
Or, as here, you respond with what appears to be a popular stonewall response that the democratic process either
will be or
has been followed and so you have no need to justify or explain your position. Yet this maxim seems not to hold when others’ opinions are applied to you via the democratic process, as seen in the case of the
Colorado baker or the Catholic schools being required to
inform students about contraception.
Either the majority (or even a vocal minority)
always has the right to impose its will on others, willy nilly, in which case this applies even to liberals, or they have a duty to consider whether or not their beliefs
should be imposed on others, even if they have the ability to do so, in which case this applies even to you.
You have one view on marriage, Quakers, Unitarians, Liberal Jews and others (including me) have another. The obvious and normal approach in such situations is for the State to remain neutral, allowing Catholics to implement their restrictive definition of marriage and others to implement a more liberal one, while the State recognises both. As is done with divorcees who want to remarry, or with religions recognising female priests.
So, to rephrase the question yet again:
If an impartial Judge were ruling on this, what argument could you possibly offer him to justify him imposing
your beliefs on
others, rather than the
impartial solution offered above?
Justifying
why you believe what you do is clearly not sufficient, unless you can, for example, show objective
proof that your position is not just valid, but
true. Or show that the
only reasonable accomodation between your beliefs and those of the liberals was for them to be forced to follow your definition of marriage.
If you reality think that gay people should be given the benefit of marriage just because some of them end up taking care of children, then why not give equivalent benefits to single caregivers of children? And why not limit gay marriage to only those couples who actually do take care of children? You see, the problem you posed cuts both ways.
Your conclusion that
only couples who actually
are raising children should be considered ‘married’ is indeed the obvious end result of
your claim that marriage is all about producing the next generation. That is one reason why I reject it. But nothing in this poses a problem for
my point of view.
