Grace in nonsacramental marriage

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I was reading that marriage to a nonbaptized person is not a sacrament (from USCCB website). What exactly does that mean as far as the grace in the marriage?
 
It means that sanctifying grace would not be received through the marriage. Nevertheless God could and presumably would give actual graces to live out the marriage in a faithful and holy way.
 
Aelred_Minor said:
It means that sanctifying grace would not be received through the marriage. Nevertheless God could and presumably would give actual graces to live out the marriage in a faithful and holy way.
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Right on! Good explanation. To add: one must be baptized before one can receive sanctifying grace, and before one can receive the grace from other sacraments. That’s why an unbaptized person cannot receive sanctifying grace from the sacrament of marriage…even if performed in a Catholic church.
 
Agree with the posts above-- I would only add that if the non-baptized person receives the sacrament of baptism, the marriage may become sacramental. My marriage to my husband was convalidated in February. My dh entered the church, receiving baptism, confirmation, and 1st Eucharist at Easter vigil. Our marriage is now sacramental. 🙂
 
If God wishes to impart sanctifying grace to an unbaptized person, he’s God, he can do that. If God wishes to impart graces upon a non-Sacramental marriage, he’s God, he can do that. Never forget that God is all powerful and is not restricted to the rules and strictures of the human world.
 
MusicMan said:
If God wishes to impart sanctifying grace to an unbaptized person, he’s God, he can do that. If God wishes to impart graces upon a non-Sacramental marriage, he’s God, he can do that. Never forget that God is all powerful and is not restricted to the rules and strictures of the human world.
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Now just a minute…God has to follow Canon Law, doesn’t he?
 
familyof4 said:
Agree with the posts above-- I would only add that if the non-baptized person receives the sacrament of baptism, the marriage may become sacramental. My marriage to my husband was convalidated in February. My dh entered the church, receiving baptism, confirmation, and 1st Eucharist at Easter vigil. Our marriage is now sacramental. 🙂
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As a retired RCIA director, I would phrase that that it does become sacramental. The sacrament is automatic.
 
MusicMan said:
If God wishes to impart sanctifying grace to an unbaptized person, he’s God, he can do that. If God wishes to impart graces upon a non-Sacramental marriage, he’s God, he can do that. Never forget that God is all powerful and is not restricted to the rules and strictures of the human world.
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I think you are thinking about “actual” grace, which the Church teaches is available to all…even to those in sin, to effect conversion. “Sanctifying” grace can only come to one’s soul though the Sacraments, beginning with Baptism.
 
JamestheOlder said:
I think you are thinking about “actual” grace, which the Church teaches is available to all…even to those in sin, to effect conversion. “Sanctifying” grace can only come to one’s soul though the Sacraments, beginning with Baptism.
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Sorry, but God’s either all powerful or he’s not. You’ve just presented me with a paradox.
 
JamestheOlder said:
How would you then explain #1631 in the Catechism of the Catholic Church?
scborromeo.org/ccc/para/1631.htm
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Note your reference states
**1631 **This is the reason why the Church normally requires that the faithful contract marriage according to the ecclesiastical form. …
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It is applicable to Catholics only.

As specified in Canon Law:
Can. 1055 §1. The matrimonial covenant, by which a man and a woman establish between themselves a partnership of the whole of life and which is ordered by its nature to the good of the spouses and the procreation and education of offspring, has been raised by Christ the Lord to the dignity of a sacrament between the baptized.
§2. For this reason, a valid matrimonial contract cannot exist between the baptized without it being by that fact a sacrament.
Can. 1056 The essential properties of marriage are unity and indissolubility, which in Christian marriage obtain a special firmness by reason of the sacrament.
Can. 1057 §1. The consent of the parties, legitimately manifested between persons qualified by law, makes marriage; no human power is able to supply this consent.
§2. Matrimonial consent is an act of the will by which a man and a woman mutually give and accept each other through an irrevocable covenant in order to establish marriage.
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However, Church Law further requires that Catholics obey Church Law Can.
1059 Even if only one party is Catholic, the marriage of Catholics is governed not only by divine law but also by canon law, without prejudice to the competence of civil authority concerning the merely civil effects of the same marriage.
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MusicMan said:
Sorry, but God’s either all powerful or he’s not. You’ve just presented me with a paradox.
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Didn’t mean to leave you with a paradox.
  1. G-d is all-powerful.
  2. G-d supplies grace; He does not “force” it upon us, nor does He give grace to those uwilling to accept it.
  3. We must cooperate with G-d by our acceptance of His grace.
  4. G-d supplies actual grace to everyone…who wants it.
  5. G-d supplies sanctifying grace to those who choose Baptism.
No limits on G-d. Just limits on us.

No paradox, I think.
 
Joe_Kelley said:
As a retired RCIA director, I would phrase that that it does become sacramental. The sacrament is automatic.
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I think I basically agree with you, Joe, but why is the convalidation necessary? There seems to have been an impediment to the reception of the “Sacrament” of Marriage which had to be validated BEFORE the Baptism. Done in that order: convalidation, then Baptism, you are right; the marriage automatically becomes sacramental.

Am I missing your point?
 
JamestheOlder said:
I think I basically agree with you, Joe, but why is the convalidation necessary? There seems to have been an impediment to the reception of the “Sacrament” of Marriage which had to be validated BEFORE the Baptism. Done in that order: convalidation, then Baptism, you are right; the marriage automatically becomes sacramental.

Am I missing your point?
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I missed any discussion of an impediment, other than disparity of cult. If the original marriage was valid, no convalidation is necessary or proper. If there was an unresolved impediment at the time of the original ceremony, then the impediment must be resolved and the marriage convalidated.

Every case depends on the details, which don’t belong on line. They should be reserved with a priest who is capable of handling them. In case of doubt consult with the diocesan tribunal.
 
Joe_Kelley said:
I missed any discussion of an impediment, other than disparity of cult. If the original marriage was valid, no convalidation is necessary or proper. If there was an unresolved impediment at the time of the original ceremony, then the impediment must be resolved and the marriage convalidated.

Every case depends on the details, which don’t belong on line. They should be reserved with a priest who is capable of handling them. In case of doubt consult with the diocesan tribunal.
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Agreed. Thanks.
 
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