Greek Grammar: Christ's Divinity in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1

[CutlerB]

Attention, Greek Grammar enthusiasts!

I’ve been re-reading verses that are cited to prove the Divinity of Our Lord and naturally came across Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1. I gather that they are translated differently, one way resulting in a clear reference to Christ as God, and one separating Him from that connection.

The matter appears to involve “Granville Sharp’s rule”, but I am not an expert or learned at all in Greek. Could someone who knows Greek grammar please explain how these verses are to be rendered?

Thank you

 

[DaveBj]

I consider myself to be a bit of a Greek geek, but since I am only self-taught, I am going to state only the obvious that the OP left out of his question, so the rest of us will know what he (sorry, it’s not obvious in the user name) is talking about.

The literal word-for-word translation if the relevant part of 1 Peter 1:1 is “. . . through righteousness of-the God of-us and Savior Jesus Christ.” The similar passage in Titus 2:13 reads “. . . appearing the glorious of-the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ.”

I think what the OP is asking is whether “Savior Jesus Christ” is an appositive of “God” (as, indeed, “Jesus Christ” is an appositive of "Savior), or whether two different individuals are being spoken of, and what rule of Greek grammar govern the interpretation.

I know what I think, but I’m not knowledgeable enough to speak with authority. So . . .

 

[CutlerB]

I consider myself to be a bit of a Greek geek, but since I am only self-taught, I am going to state only the obvious that the OP left out of his question, so the rest of us will know what he (sorry, it’s not obvious in the user name) is talking about.

He.

The literal word-for-word translation if the relevant part of 1 Peter 1:1 is “. . . through righteousness of-the God of-us and Savior Jesus Christ.” The similar passage in Titus 2:13 reads “. . . appearing the glorious of-the great God and Savior of-us Jesus Christ.”

I think what the OP is asking is whether “Savior Jesus Christ” is an appositive of “God” (as, indeed, “Jesus Christ” is an appositive of "Savior), or whether two different individuals are being spoken of, and what rule of Greek grammar govern the interpretation.

I know what I think, but I’m not knowledgeable enough to speak with authority. So . . .

Indeed, that’s what I mean. Thanks for clarifying!

 

[jonathan_hili]

If you’re really interested in the way Greek is used specifically to demonstrate Jesus’ divinity, which is not often translated as faithfully (or at least, according to formal equivalence) is John 1:18, in the Greek:

θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε; μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.

Which translated, is (in proper English word order): “No one has ever (yet) seen God; the only-begotten God (who) is in the bosom of the Father, he exegeted (him; or made his story known).”

This, for me, is an astonishing declaration of the divinity of Christ (well, apart from John 1:1 ).

In fact, John is quite strong in terms of his reflection of the Holy Trinity; he is the only evangelist (outside the epistles) who actually says “God the Father”.