Hardeness of heart

[Statius]

I’m currently reading my way through the Pentateuch and have noticed something which puzzles me. In a couple of places God has commanded Moses to do something but then hardened someone else’s heart against complying with Moses. God harden’s Pharoah’s heart against letting the Israelites leave (Exodus 7:3), and then later, when Moses petitions King Sihon for passage for the Israelites through the king’s land, God “hardened his spirit and made his heart defiant” (Deuteronomy 2:30). Firstly it seems in any case like a strange thing for God to do, and secondly I wonder how culpable these people can be if God Himself has induced this hardness of heart in them.

How should I understand this?

 

[Cranch]

I’m currently reading my way through the Pentateuch and have noticed something which puzzles me. In a couple of places God has commanded Moses to do something but then hardened someone else’s heart against complying with Moses. God harden’s Pharoah’s heart against letting the Israelites leave (Exodus 7:3), and then later, when Moses petitions King Sihon for passage for the Israelites through the king’s land, God “hardened his spirit and made his heart defiant” (Deuteronomy 2:30). Firstly it seems in any case like a strange thing for God to do, and secondly I wonder how culpable these people can be if God Himself has induced this hardness of heart in them.

How should I understand this?

Here are Bishop Challoner’s notes from the Douay-Rheims Bible:

Exodus 7:3
*I shall harden, etc… *not by being the efficient cause of his hardness of heart, but by permitting it; and by withdrawing grace from him, in punishment of his malice; which alone was the proper cause of his being hardened.

Deut 2:30
*Hardened, etc… *That is, in punishment of his past sins he left him to his own stubborn and perverse disposition, which drew him to his ruin. See the note on Exodus 7:3.

 

[andrewagill]

I’m currently reading my way through the Pentateuch and have noticed something which puzzles me. In a couple of places God has commanded Moses to do something but then hardened someone else’s heart against complying with Moses. God harden’s Pharoah’s heart against letting the Israelites leave (Exodus 7:3), and then later, when Moses petitions King Sihon for passage for the Israelites through the king’s land, God “hardened his spirit and made his heart defiant” (Deuteronomy 2:30). Firstly it seems in any case like a strange thing for God to do, and secondly I wonder how culpable these people can be if God Himself has induced this hardness of heart in them.

How should I understand this?

Well, I see that no one seems to be taking up the line of Socratic questioning that I started in the other thread, so let me try it here.

Come Statius, you are well esteemed, and to such an esteemed person, I should like to beg your opinion on a subject. I am slow of mind and I do not comprehend this statement.

Why is it a strange thing for God to harden a man’s heart?

 

[Statius]

Well, I see that no one seems to be taking up the line of Socratic questioning that I started in the other thread, so let me try it here.

Come Statius, you are well esteemed, and to such an esteemed person, I should like to beg your opinion on a subject. I am slow of mind and I do not comprehend this statement.

Why is it a strange thing for God to harden a man’s heart?

Very well

My initial feeling was that God appears to be abetting sin. Sin is, by its nature, that which seperates us from God and God does not want us to be seperated from Him; abetting sin would run contrary to this.

That said, I can understand the points Cranch has kindly posted from Bishop Challoner’s notes.

 

[andrewagill]

Very well

My initial feeling was that God appears to be abetting sin. Sin is, by its nature, that which seperates us from God and God does not want us to be seperated from Him; abetting sin would run contrary to this.

That said, I can understand the points Cranch has kindly posted from Bishop Challoner’s notes.

Well stated, Statius, you seem to have a very clear and effective voice in describing these matters! But I am still lacking in understanding.

Perhaps you can tell me which sin was it that Pharaoh was committing?

 

[Statius]

Perhaps you can tell me which sin was it that Pharaoh was committing?

A good question which I had not considered. Pardon my slow response. Hmm. He was keeping the Israelites captive in Egypt and had in place a policy of male infanticide aimed at the complete assimilation of the Israelites.

 

[andrewagill]

A good question which I had not considered. Pardon my slow response. Hmm. He was keeping the Israelites captive in Egypt and had in place a policy of male infanticide aimed at the complete assimilation of the Israelites.

Infanticide? That was indeed quite grave, and I had forgotten about this infamous crime. You are obviously very learned in this matter, and I would ask you to indulge me in a further question:

Did God coerce Pharaoh to commit infanticide? It would be very difficult for me to understand why God would force someone to commit infanticide.

 

[Statius]

Did God coerce Pharaoh to commit infanticide? It would be very difficult for me to understand why God would force someone to commit infanticide.

God did not coerce Pharaoh into commiting infanticide. However, the text suggests that he did take some action which actively contibuted to Pharaoh’s resistance of Moses, thus encouraging him to prolong his sins.

Just my luck I don’t get to be Socrates, eh I look forward to you proving me wrong, though!

 

[ryanoneil]

Divine hardening didn’t cause Pharoah to sin but was the disciplinary measure for already stubbornly resisting God. In other words, Pharaoh prepaired himself for hardening by rejecting God and God allowed his heart to harden as the punishment.

 

[andrewagill]

God did not coerce Pharaoh into commiting infanticide. However, the text suggests that he did take some action which actively contibuted to Pharaoh’s resistance of Moses, thus encouraging him to prolong his sins.

This is very enlightening, Statius. If the hardness of heart were not in the matter of infanticide, then was Pharaoh’s heart hardened in the matter of keeping Hebrews as slaves?

Is it intrinsically wrong and a sin to keep Hebrews as slaves?

Just my luck I don’t get to be Socrates, eh I look forward to you proving me wrong, though!

Unlike Socrates, who was all about proving people wrong and making them look foolish, most modern Socratic dialogues (including this one) are about encouraging the other person to think critically, and to come up with the answer on his own, thus making the other person feel more intelligent.

 

[Statius]

This is very enlightening, Statius. If the hardness of heart were not in the matter of infanticide, then was Pharaoh’s heart hardened in the matter of keeping Hebrews as slaves?

Is it intrinsically wrong and a sin to keep Hebrews as slaves?

After the exodus, God laid down laws governing slavery which distinguished between temporary servitude for Hebrews in debt and the permanent slavery into which foreigners could be placed. This, of course, just says that it is wrong for Hebrews to keep other Hebrews in slavery. There is, to my knowledge, no explicit and blanket condemnation of slavery in the Bible.

Like infanticide, however, God did not coerce Pharaoh to enslave the Hebrews.

 

[ryanoneil]

God is not the author of sin and he did not coerce Pharoah into sinning. God’s sovereignty includes human free will. The Lord had Moses tell Pharaoh to let the Israelites leave his land. If Pharoah did not have the ability to do so, God’s request would have been superfluous.

God actually willed Pharoah to do the right thing but when he resisted God, he placed himself in opposition to God. God withdrew all grace from Pharoah and allowed his heart to harden. God hardening his heart was his punishment for disobedience. Pharoah damned himself.

 

[andrewagill]

After the exodus, God laid down laws governing slavery which distinguished between temporary servitude for Hebrews in debt and the permanent slavery into which foreigners could be placed. This, of course, just says that it is wrong for Hebrews to keep other Hebrews in slavery. There is, to my knowledge, no explicit and blanket condemnation of slavery in the Bible.

Like infanticide, however, God did not coerce Pharaoh to enslave the Hebrews.

Indeed, dear Statius, you have a sharp mind. I wonder, however, if God looked favorably on the actions of Pharaoh? Do you believe that there is a good chance that Pharaoh would be judged favorably by God?

 

[Statius]

I wonder, however, if God looked favorably on the actions of Pharaoh? Do you believe that there is a good chance that Pharaoh would be judged favorably by God?

God led His chosen people out of Egypt, and drowned Pharaoh’s army in the sea - certainly an unfavourable judgement on Pharaoh!

 

[andrewagill]

God led His chosen people out of Egypt, and drowned Pharaoh’s army in the sea - certainly an unfavourable judgement on Pharaoh!

Well, then. If Pharaoh had done what was right in the eyes of God, would he have gone to Heaven?

 

[Statius]

Well, then. If Pharaoh had done what was right in the eyes of God, would he have gone to Heaven?

I suppose so, yes.

 

[andrewagill]

I suppose so, yes.

Ah, but Pharaoh died before Jesus was born, did he not? Perhaps I meant that he would have made it into the Hell of the Just? The place that Jesus descended to when He descended to the dead?

 

[Statius]

Ah, but Pharaoh died before Jesus was born, did he not? Perhaps I meant that he would have made it into the Hell of the Just? The place that Jesus descended to when He descended to the dead?

We have spoken imprecisely. You are correct.

 

[andrewagill]

Yet the Hell of the Just was designated for the righteous Jews and Gentiles who had professed the faith in anticipation of Christ. Even before Moses demanded Pharaoh let the Hebrews go, I think it is fairly clear that Pharaoh was not a righteous Gentile, and he was certainly not a Jew, righteous or otherwise.

Thus, Pharaoh’s fate was rather probably the Hell of the Damned before Moses even spoke to him, and it is unlikely that any action on Pharaoh’s part could have altered that. Thus, from God’s perspective, hardening Pharaoh’s heart would not have done violence to the man, since his fate was already determined.

At least, that’s my theory. Thanks for reading.

 

[Statius]

Thank you, I think my question is answered and my curiosity satisfied