Has the Church ever been wrong?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Big_Dummy
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Charging interest is a person’s action. Big difference.
Yeah, but declaring that charging interest of any sort is a grave sin making one unworthy of receiving sacraments was a Church action which was either right or wrong. Which do you think it was? When it later declared that interest could be charged, was it right or wrong? I don’t see how it could make sense for us to say that the church could be right at one time to say it is evil and also right at another time to say that it is permissable without being moral relativists.
 
So buttons. I was trying to help answer the OP about whether the Church has ever been wrong about anything. You seem to be agreeing that it has. I agree. Of course it has. So what? Don’t ask me. I don’t see why it is such a big deal to admit that the Church has in at least some time in the past been wrong about at least one thing.
Ummm. no.

You see, the whole ‘monetary industry’ changed, Leela. The Church did not change its teaching --society changed its understanding of what money and banking and interest were.

For the people in AD 330, for that particular system, interest (as we know it then and now) would have been wrong.

For the people in AD 1200 (or for that matter, today), the entire system of money had changed.

Let’s try to put it in perspective.
Today antibiotics such as penicillin exist. Prior to 1928 (and Fleming), penicillin as such did not exist in usable form.

So. . .in AD 1928, doctors could not prescribe penicillin (as it was just being made ‘available’ but not yet marketed).

In, say, 1864, if you had a wound from a battle, it would likely get infected and you would die.

In, say, 1964, if you had a wound from a battle, you’d get some antibiotics hooked up and would most likely recover.

So suppose you tell the doctors of 1860, "Use antibiotics to treat wounds’.

It’s NOT GONNA WORK. THEY DON’T EXIST IN USABLE FORM.

Same with the people of AD 336. Telling them to charge interest THEN because we can do so justly today would be silly. AND telling people of TODAY NOT to charge interest because the people 1500 years ago could NOT (as the monetary SYSTEM did NOT SUPPORT IT THEN) is equally silly.

Back years ago, Leela, if a woman had a caesaean section SHE DIED, because the only way in which the procedure could be done KILLED HER.

So. . .you gonna tell today’s mothers-to-be that the doctors better not DARE order a C-section because even less than 200 years ago, any C-section resulted in maternal death??? Are you really?

Now, a person who only knew that the C-section was a sure death sentence for the mother would only carry out that procedure if the mother were already gone, otherwise it would be murder. So a C-section 200 years ago COULD BE A SIN. It would be rare that a C-section would be a sin today. Did the Church’s teaching change . .or did the procedure and ITS RESULTS change between 200 years ago and today??
 
Ummm. no.

You see, the whole ‘monetary industry’ changed, Leela. The Church did not change its teaching --society changed its understanding of what money and banking and interest were.

For the people in AD 330, for that particular system, interest (as we know it then and now) would have been wrong.

For the people in AD 1200 (or for that matter, today), the entire system of money had changed.

Let’s try to put it in perspective.
Today antibiotics such as penicillin exist…
Instead of talking about penicillin, why don’t you explain how there is a whole new understanding “of what money and banking and interest were”? Interest is a transparent concept that hasn’t changed its meaning over time. What has changed is not what interest is but the way people think about the morality of interest. But what people think is moral is not the same as what is moral for those of us who are not moral relativists.
 
The following shows that Leela was well informed about the Church and usury in the thread How do you feel about socialism? as well as on male only priests and homosexual activity.

From: #148, 13/4/10, 9:18 am Abu Re: How do you feel about socialism? Do you think it is morally wrong?
Deuteronomy 23:20:
“You may charge interest to a foreigner,” indicating that interest-taking is not presented as inherently evil or sinful. The larger ethical issue of the morality of interest-taking is not addressed in the Old Testament. Rather, “interest was viewed only as a problem of social justice. The problem of commutative justice, i.e., of equivalence of value in an exchange of present for future goods, remained quite untouched” (Thomas F. Divine, S.J.,* Interest*, 10).

With developing free enterprise, the Church defined what is meant by usury. Session X of the Fifth Lateran Council (1515) gave its exact meaning: “For that is the real meaning of usury: when, from its use, a thing which produces nothing is applied to the acquiring of gain and profit without any work, any expense or any risk.”

From: #155, 14/4/10, 11:51 am Abu Re: How do you feel about socialism? Do you think it is morally wrong?
Leela
There is much in the Bible to argue against a capitalistic economy even though some version of well-regulated capitalism seems to be the best sort of economy for creating wealth across the board. (The sort of rationalization presented above is exactly the sort of argument that the Church has made in the past that I expect to see when the Church eventually distances itself from some other bits of dogma such as its prohibition of female priests and its position against homosexuals.)
There is absolutely nothing in the Word of God that contradicts the economic laws of cause and effect provided by God for us to discover by reason, and at last we have some commonsense that “well-regulated capitalism seems to be the best sort of economy for creating wealth…” When you add the fact that Christ’s Church provides the fullness of His truth to enable sound morality and deep faith (the many canonised saints whose lives display fidelity to Him in multitudinous ways, and utter commitment to truth), and the development of science, the picture will be complete.

Pardon, your slip is showing: not only have you been unable to fault the definition of usury, but the condemnation of taking interest was never infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium; further, there is no dogma, male only priests is an infallible doctrine based on Christ’s priests being in persona Christi; and the homosexual condition is a disorder, and the activity against the natural moral law known from reason as well as Christ’s teaching. No dogma or defined doctrine has ever been, or can be, changed.

**From #160, 15/4/10, 6:39 pm Abu Re: How do you feel about socialism? Do you think it is morally wrong? **
Leela
Face reality: the condemnation of taking interest was never infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium. There is no dogma against that’s why you could not quote one. The Fathers of the Church, councils and popes condemn taking interest from the poor, and the greed of usurers, but say nothing about charging interest as such and knew nothing about modern economics where interest rates are moderated by money markets.
 
…the condemnation of taking interest was never infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium.
You’ll be able to say exactly the same thing to point out the church was never actually wrong when it changes its stance on contraception, homosexuality, and female priests or whatever.

It just doesn’t mean much to say in defense of a change in position that X “was never infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium” since most of the claims the Church makes that you now defend are not “infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium.”
 
You’ll be able to say exactly the same thing to point out the church was never actually wrong when it changes its stance on contraception, homosexuality, and female priests or whatever.

It just doesn’t mean much to say in defense of a change in position that X “was never infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium” since most of the claims the Church makes that you now defend are not “infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium.”
Speaking as a Catholic on a Catholic Forum, the Church will never change what you refer to as its stance on contraception. Many falsehoods are attached to the necessity of contraception. The chief falsehood is that no one can control their own sexuality. This teaching that everyone is out of control is enforced daily by the media. I was born prior to the Birth Control Pill. The average number of kids in my neighborhood was two - 2 -.

Any woman who becomes a priest-like individual is automatically excommunicated if she was a member of the Catholic Church.

Homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered. Laws are not made against individuals, they are made to prohibit certain behaviors. Gay marriage is an attempt to institutionalize gay sex, which is already occurring without any sort of institution.

God bless,
Ed
 
What is it that possibly even *can *reflect back on the church? There is a game of hide the ball that gets played with the OP’s question so that it is impossible to even say what it could mean for the church to be wrong about anything. But then by the same token, it must not claim to be right about very much at all. It doesn’t mean anything to say that the church is always right when anything that it says that is wrong can be written off as not really what the church ever taught. How absurd it is to say “That wasn’t really the church, that was just some specific pope, bishop or group of popes, bishops, priests, and laity,” as though they are no reflection on the Church.

Whenever someone points out that the Church used to teach X but X turned out to have been false or morally wrong, the response is always, “yes, but that was never infallible dogma.” Where is the list of declarations that have been made as infallible dogma? What is it exactly that the church is right about?
Absolutely the most profound post on this thread Leela. There is of course a difference between Church teaching and the personal opinion of popes, commissions, encyclicals. You must know this.

** Whenever someone points out that the Church used to teach X but X turned out to have been false or morally wrong, the response is always, “yes, but that was never infallible dogma.” Where is the list of declarations that have been made as infallible dogma? What is it exactly that the church is right about?**

Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma by Ludwig Ott and Denzinger’s Sources of Catholic Dogma are two good guides. There is only one Church teaching, one decree that I know of anyway that you will not find in either book, nor any Cathechism, the decree of 1616 defining belief in a fixed sun/moving earth. Because it is one case where the Church was accused by its own as being wrong in its dogmatic teaching (a heresy can only be a contradiction of a dogma thus a heresy is a dogma negatively defined). It is this case that gave birth to the ‘it was not infallible’ farce that is the only way the flock can be blinded to the real consequence of a heliocentric reading of the Bible allowed in the Church since 1835. This truth however is not wanted in Catholic circles, brings about closure to any such important debate you present above. Just watch it disappear to the tune of ‘It wasn’t infallible.’ or 'that pontifical decree was not Church teaching. or ‘they got it hopelessly wrong, they defined a physical truth formal heresy so it doesn’t count.’
 
Speaking as a Catholic on a Catholic Forum, the Church will never change what you refer to as its stance on contraception. Many falsehoods are attached to the necessity of contraception. The chief falsehood is that no one can control their own sexuality. This teaching that everyone is out of control is enforced daily by the media. I was born prior to the Birth Control Pill. The average number of kids in my neighborhood was two - 2 -.

Any woman who becomes a priest-like individual is automatically excommunicated if she was a member of the Catholic Church.

Homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered. Laws are not made against individuals, they are made to prohibit certain behaviors. Gay marriage is an attempt to institutionalize gay sex, which is already occurring without any sort of institution.
I wasn’t trying to debate contraception here. I am question the notion that Apu seems to have that unless something has been declared infallibly and later changed then we can’t say that the Chirch really changed its mind on anything. Very few things the church teaches have been declared as infallible.

Do you think it makes sense to say that the church was never wrong about charging interest given that it once said that any charging of interest was a grave sin making one who did it unfit to receive any sacraments while now it does not consider all charging of interest sinful usuary?

Does that not constitute a change in doctrine and if so, is that not evidence that the church was wrong about at least one thing in the past? (I’m sure we agree that, pace the relativists, it is impossible for interest to be bad in the past but ok today. Either it was always good or always bad.)
 
My understanding is that the church once taught that charging any interest is a sin.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Usury
"The First Council of Nicaea in 325, forbade clergy from engaging in usury[6] (canon 17). At the time “usury” simply mean interest of any kind, and the canon merely forbade the clergy to lend money on interest above one per cent per month. Later ecumenical councils applied this regulation to the laity.[6][7]

Lateran III decreed that persons who accepted interest on loans could receive neither the sacraments nor Christian burial.[8] Pope Clement V made the belief in the right to usury a heresy in 1311, and abolished all secular legislation which allowed it.[9] Pope Sixtus V condemned the practice of charging interest as “detestable to God and man, damned by the sacred canons and contrary to Christian charity.”[9]"

Later of course the Church changed its teaching.

I was told before that the Church was not officially wrong when it taught that people charging interest can’t receive the sacraments because that was never declared as infallible. Do I have that right Apu?
Leela:

Jesus did ask that people not charge others interest. I think, in context, He was describing that people ought not “earn a living by charging interest.” Earning interest on money lent was considered "unproductive,"per se, in the narrower sense of that word.

I had the Scripture in front of me earlier today, but, I closed the book. I’ll look for it for you.

God bless,
jd
 
My understanding is that the church once taught that charging any interest is a sin.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Usury
"The First Council of Nicaea in 325, forbade clergy from engaging in usury[6] (canon 17). At the time “usury” simply mean interest of any kind, and the canon merely forbade the clergy to lend money on interest above one per cent per month. Later ecumenical councils applied this regulation to the laity.[6][7]

Lateran III decreed that persons who accepted interest on loans could receive neither the sacraments nor Christian burial.[8] Pope Clement V made the belief in the right to usury a heresy in 1311, and abolished all secular legislation which allowed it.[9] Pope Sixtus V condemned the practice of charging interest as “detestable to God and man, damned by the sacred canons and contrary to Christian charity.”[9]"

Later of course the Church changed its teaching.

I was told before that the Church was not officially wrong when it taught that people charging interest can’t receive the sacraments because that was never declared as infallible. Do I have that right Apu?
Leela:

The early life of the inhabitants of the earth was agrarian. A family’s assets were its crops, cows, chickens, pigs, etc., rather than coin. Especially out in the farm areas. So, interest might mean a cow, or a pig. Very expensive for poor farmer families.

As the population expanded, and the population migrated to larger and larger cities, it was discovered that people had: to be “hired” to grow food, obtain places to live, etc. This meant investment in land, seed, beef, chickens boats, etc. The money had to come from someplace, so borrowing became more fashionable and less harmful on a family, especially if over-charging was kept in check.

The Church recognized the changes in the earth’s surface and changed its mind about interest at a more appropriate time. It wasn’t an error. It was the proper way to be charitable, especially toward the poor.

God bless,
jd
 
Instead of talking about penicillin, why don’t you explain how there is a whole new understanding “of what money and banking and interest were”? Interest is a transparent concept that hasn’t changed its meaning over time. What has changed is not what interest is but the way people think about the morality of interest. But what people think is moral is not the same as what is moral for those of us who are not moral relativists.
Leela:

True to some extent. The primary difference is what people took from others as interest in earlier, pre-money times, as compared to post-money times. Furthermore, interest was more a tribute. A person could essentially charge anything he wanted, thereby crushing a borrowing family. When the Church allowed it, I believe they imposed a limit, not only on their clergy, but also, upon the laity, of 1% per month.

God bless,
jd
 
You’ll be able to say exactly the same thing to point out the church was never actually wrong when it changes its stance on contraception, homosexuality, and female priests or whatever.
Not going to happen.
It just doesn’t mean much to say in defense of a change in position that X “was never infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium” since most of the claims the Church makes that you now defend are not “infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium.”
But, if it’s true, it’s true. What’s your problem with that? Someone already presented the (I think) seven infallible proclamations of the Church. You keeping digging, like a dog looking for a lost, never-to-be-found bone. Some Churched people have done things wrong, across the centuries. But, the Church, per se, can’t (Boy that would prove there’s no holy head of the Church)!. No matter how hard you try to dig one up! 😉

God bless,
jd
 
Not going to happen.

But, if it’s true, it’s true. What’s your problem with that? Someone already presented the (I think) seven infallible proclamations of the Church. You keeping digging, like a dog looking for a lost, never-to-be-found bone. Some Churched people have done things wrong, across the centuries. But, the Church, per se, can’t (Boy that would prove there’s no holy head of the Church)!. No matter how hard you try to dig one up! 😉
My issue is with the way many here are trying to frame the question. If the question “has the church ever been wrong about anything?” can only apply to these seven things, then the question “what is the church right about?” can only apply to these seven things. The church is obviously much more than these seven things. It is ridiculous to say “though the church was wrong about X, X was never claimed infallibly so it doesn’t count.” So few things were ever claimed infallibly that it is disingenuous to equate the church with only infallible claims. We both know that you see the church as making more than 7 claims.
 
Leela
Post #102: Interest is a transparent concept that hasn’t changed its meaning over time. What has changed is not what interest is but the way people think about the morality of interest. But what people think is moral is not the same as what is moral for those of us who are not moral relativists.
Post &104: You’ll be able to say exactly the same thing to point out the church was never actually wrong when it changes its stance on contraception, homosexuality, and female priests or whatever.
It just doesn’t mean much to say in defense of a change in position that X “was never infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium” since most of the claims the Church makes that you now defend are not “infallibly proposed by the ordinary Magisterium.”
How frightfully confused, which is in keeping with the fact that you’ve learned nothing from your errors in How do you feel about socialism?
The fact: Session X of the Fifth Lateran Council (1515) gave usury its exact meaning: “For that is the real meaning of usury: when, from its use, a thing which produces nothing is applied to the acquiring of gain and profit without any work, any expense or any risk.”
The *Catholic Encyclopedia *(Vermeesch, Interest) explains the new understanding on the charging of interest with the better understanding of the use of money as economic theory developed.

“In modern economies, it is clear, money has investment uses and is widely productive. The Franciscan St. Bernardine of Siena (1380-1444) was perhaps the first theologian to recognize that time of use had an economic value and, at least in certain cases, might be licitly compensated. St. Antoninus (1389-1459), a Dominican of Florence, seems to have questioned whether Aristotle was correct in saying that money is naturally sterile. Money alone, he said, is sterile, but, combined with knowledge and enterprise, it is fruitful. His Summa Moralis examined commerce and banking, and prepared the way for modern notions of interest, which generally regard proper returns on loans taken with just title as fair.” Encyclopedia of Catholic Doctrine, OSV CD].

You claim not to be a “moral relativist” yet use relativism as a habit on “contraception, homosexuality, and female priests”.
Your continued misinformation and myopia is very evident, as Christ’s Church doesn’t make “claims”, She teaches dogma and doctrine and what faithful Catholics offer on this DB is the infallible doctrine against contraception in Encyclicals (Casti Connubii, Pius XI, 1930; Humanae Vitae, Paul VI, 1968), and the infallible doctrine on male only priests in the Apostolic Epistle Ordinatio Sacerdotalis, 1994.
 
Yeah, but declaring that charging interest of any sort is a grave sin making one unworthy of receiving sacraments was a Church action which was either right or wrong. Which do you think it was? When it later declared that interest could be charged, was it right or wrong? I don’t see how it could make sense for us to say that the church could be right at one time to say it is evil and also right at another time to say that it is permissable without being moral relativists.
USURY

Many people believe that “usury” is the practice of charging interest on a loan. Because the Catholic Church has condemned usury and now supposedly permits and benefits from this practice, anti-Catholics argue that the Church has contradicted her own teaching. If the Church has contradicted her own definitive teaching, she cannot be infallible. The problem with the anti-Catholic argument is that the Church has never defined usury as “taking interest on a loan.” Instead, the Fifth Lateran Council (1515) defines usury as follows:
“For that is the real meaning of usury: when, from its use, a thing which produces nothing is applied to the acquiring of gain and profit without any work, any expense or any risk” (Session X).
Thus, usury is not “charging interest on a loan.” Usury is profiting from something which produces nothing, without any effort. Depending on the circumstances, this could apply to money, bushels of wheat, widgets or other goods. To better understand the Church’s teaching on usury as it relates to money, we must understand how money was viewed and functioned before we had competitive markets.
In the economies of antiquity, there was little or no opportunity to invest money to make a return. Money was used for private, not commercial exchanges. Accordingly, using Aristotelian terminology, money was considered “barren.” That is, money had no inherent value while idle. It could only be consumed or hoarded.
Of course, the nature of money has changed over the centuries. In today’s global economy of competitive markets, money is no longer “barren.” To the contrary, money is “fruitful” because there are many opportunities to invest money to make a return. Thus, a transaction that would have been usurious in the past would not necessarily be usurious today. Because money in today’s economy is “fruitful,” the act of loaning money in such an economy at interest is not usurious (since money has value even when idle).
Pope Benedict addressed this in his encyclical Vix Pervenit (November 1, 1745):
“…entirely just and legitimate reasons arise to demand something over and above the amount due on the contract. Nor is it denied that it is very often possible for someone, by means of contracts differing entirely from loans, to spend and invest money legitimately either to provide oneself with an annual income or to engage in legitimate trade and business. For these types of contracts honest gain may be made.”
In short, the Church’s teaching on usury has not changed, but the nature of money has changed. Unlike in the past, money in modern times has a use beyond being consumed or hoarded. It can now be invested to yield a return. Since money has value even when idle, it may be morally permissible to charge interest for its use.
Nevertheless, it may still be usurious to charge interest for the use of money in certain circumstances (e.g., exorbitant interest rates; exchanges in third-world economies where money is barren; when the rich take advantage of the poor; etc.) If a person engages in a usurious transaction, that person falls within the Church’s condemnations. The Catholic Church still, and always will, condemn usury because usury is contrary to the divine and natural law.

more…
 
cassini
The decree of 1616 defining belief in a fixed sun/moving earth. Because it is one case where the Church was accused by its own as being wrong in its dogmatic teaching (a heresy can only be a contradiction of a dogma thus a heresy is a dogma negatively defined). It is this case that gave birth to the ‘it was not infallible’ farce that is the only way the flock can be blinded to the real consequence of a heliocentric reading of the Bible allowed in the Church since 1835.
A silly fabrication once again. Funny how this poster has learned nothing from the facts offered and continues with his fantasy.
Post #36: “Certainly Christ’s Church was not empowered by Him to decide scientific questions, as St Augustine had said more than a thousand years before, and a tribunal calling the theory ‘false and absurd’ was wrong.”

**Since a “decree” is neither a dogma nor even a doctrine, and as the authority of the Holy Office does not extend to infallible pronouncements, there is no “fact” of heresy pronounced by any Pope concerning Galileo. **

Darwin’s bulldog, Thomas Huxley, “went to Rome and examined the Case, a little more thoroughly than the average humanist, probably intending to use it in his ongoing controversy with the Anglican bishop, Samuel Wilberforce. In a letter written to Mivart in 1885 he concluded, rather disappointedly, I presume – ‘I looked into the matter when I was in Italy and I arrived at the conclusion that the Pope and the College of Cardinals had rather the best of it.’ ”
[Arthur Koestler, *The Sleepwalkers, MacMillan, 1959, p 353; cited in The Six Days of Creation, Br Thomas Mary Sennott, Ravengate, 1984, p185-6].

Galileo was, in the 1633 Decree of the Inquisition, censured as “vehemently suspected of heresy.” No papal declaration of heresy was made.

In his multivolume A History of Christendom, Vol. 4 *The Cleaving of Christendom *(Christendom Press, 2000), Dr Warren H Carroll writes that the 1615 decree against Galileo as published by the eleven theologians of the Inquisition did not declare his teaching “heretical”. He cites Broderick’s Robert Bellarmine, p 372. In fact, Pope Urban VIII declared that the Copernican theory was not heretical (p 540, citing von Pastor’s History of the Popes). Galileo was never declared a heretic by any Pope, or Ecumenical Council – by Christ’s Church which gave Galileo a fair hearing.

See Catholic Answers: catholic.com/library/Galileo_Controversy.asp
“The Church has never claimed ordinary tribunals, such as the one that judged Galileo, to be infallible. Church tribunals have disciplinary and juridical authority only; neither they nor their decisions are infallible.

“No ecumenical council met concerning Galileo, and the pope was not at the center of the discussions, which were handled by the Holy Office. When the Holy Office finished its work, Urban VIII ratified its verdict, but did not attempt to engage infallibility.”

The Church enabled the development of science, as part of how She built Western civilization.
 
A silly fabrication once again. Funny how this poster has learned nothing from the facts offered and continues with his fantasy.
Post #36: “Certainly Christ’s Church was not empowered by Him to decide scientific questions, as St Augustine had said more than a thousand years before, and a tribunal calling the theory ‘false and absurd’ was wrong.”

**Since a “decree” is neither a dogma nor even a doctrine, and as the authority of the Holy Office does not extend to infallible pronouncements, there is no “fact” of heresy pronounced by any Pope concerning Galileo. **

Darwin’s bulldog, Thomas Huxley, “went to Rome and examined the Case, a little more thoroughly than the average humanist, probably intending to use it in his ongoing controversy with the Anglican bishop, Samuel Wilberforce. In a letter written to Mivart in 1885 he concluded, rather disappointedly, I presume – ‘I looked into the matter when I was in Italy and I arrived at the conclusion that the Pope and the College of Cardinals had rather the best of it.’ ”
[Arthur Koestler, *The Sleepwalkers
, MacMillan, 1959, p 353; cited in The Six Days of Creation, Br Thomas Mary Sennott, Ravengate, 1984, p185-6].

Galileo was, in the 1633 Decree of the Inquisition, censured as “vehemently suspected of heresy.” No papal declaration of heresy was made.

In his multivolume A History of Christendom, Vol. 4 *The Cleaving of Christendom *(Christendom Press, 2000), Dr Warren H Carroll writes that the 1615 decree against Galileo as published by the eleven theologians of the Inquisition did not declare his teaching “heretical”. He cites Broderick’s Robert Bellarmine, p 372. In fact, Pope Urban VIII declared that the Copernican theory was not heretical (p 540, citing von Pastor’s History of the Popes). Galileo was never declared a heretic by any Pope, or Ecumenical Council – by Christ’s Church which gave Galileo a fair hearing.

See Catholic Answers: catholic.com/library/Galileo_Controversy.asp
“The Church has never claimed ordinary tribunals, such as the one that judged Galileo, to be infallible. Church tribunals have disciplinary and juridical authority only; neither they nor their decisions are infallible.

“No ecumenical council met concerning Galileo, and the pope was not at the center of the discussions, which were handled by the Holy Office. When the Holy Office finished its work, Urban VIII ratified its verdict, but did not attempt to engage infallibility.”

The Church enabled the development of science, as part of how She built Western civilization.

Learn something about the Galileo case from you or your references Abu, not in a million years.
Let me list your errors here.

First you guys always quote St Augustine who rightly said if clear proof for something contradicted an interpretation of Scripture it should be discarded. But what proof is there for a fixed sun/moving earth? It was decreed formal heresy. Thus let us see what St Thomas said when it comes to any such clashes as the Galileo case.

The knowledge proper to this science of theology comes through divine revelation and not through natural reason. Therefore, it has no concern to prove principles of other sciences, but only to judge them. Whatever is found in other sciences contrary to any truth of this science of theology must be condemned as false.’ — (ST, I, Q 1, a 6, ad 2).

The 1616 papal decree defined and declared formal heresy. Thus by way of Pope Paul V formal heresy was defined. The next pope Urban VIII publicly declared it was immutable. Now you can deny the minutes of the case all you like, but the facts are here.

How does the Huxley quote help you abu, I totally agree with him.

The Formal heresy (contrary to dogma) was defined in 1616 not 1633. Galileo, because he denied under oath he held the heresy - while his book dialogue showed he did support the herest, could only be found suspect of heresy. Here again abu you rubber stamp my facts on heresy.

Dr Warren H Carroll doesn’t even get his date correct, the decree was in 1616 not 1615. In his reference to no heresy he must mean the ‘contrary to Scripture’ language used. But surely Carroll knows ‘contrary to Scripture’ is formal heresy.

‘Pope Urban VIII declared that the Copernican theory was not heretical (p 540, citing von Pastor’s History of the Popes)’ This is a joke. Here from the minutes of Galileo’s trial the order of Urban VIII:
’ “**Invoking, then, the most holy Name of our Lord Jesus Christ, and that of His most glorious Mother Mary ever Virgin, by this our definitive sentence we say, pronounce, judge, and declare, that you, the said Galileo, on account of these things proved against you by documentary evidence, and which have been confessed by you as aforesaid, have rendered yourself to this Holy Office vehemently suspected of heresy, that is, of having believed and held a doctrine which is false and contrary to the sacred and divine Scriptures -to wit, that the sun is in the centre of the world, and that it does not move from east to west, and that the earth moves, and is not the centre of the universe; **and that an opinion can be held and defended as probable after it has been declared and defined to be contrary to Holy Scripture [immutable] **. **’

‘Whereas ‘tribunals’ may be ordinary, there was nothing ‘ordinary’ about the Holy Office’ founded to examing matters of serious heresy with the pope as Prefect.’

Urban III decided every word in Galileo’s trial. What do you mean ‘he never attempted to engage his infallibility.’ Did he say, ‘I do not engage my infallibility’? Engage his infallibility as regards what? Pope Urban Viii did not define the 1616 decree, he merely interpreted it as ‘immutible’, that is ‘irreversable’, that is PERMANENT.

Pope Paul V and Pope Urban VIII monitored and decided EVERY WORD OF GALILEO’S TRIAL.
 
What of the claim(that my muslim friend made) that Papal infallibility is false because Pope John Paul II apologized for the crusades. The Claim is that the popes during the time of the crusades made official pronouncements regarding the morality of the crusades(note that The Church did not officially define papal infallibility until 1870). My friend argues that the crusades fall under the category of faith and morals thus the morality of the Crusades is not up for debate and since Pope John Paul II apologized for the Crusades it is said that this disproves Catholicism. The argument can be formulated as follows:
  1. The morality(justness) of the Crusades was infallibly declared by the popes at the time.
    a. It was declared officially (ex cathedra though it wasn’t defined at the time)
    b. It was a matter of morals
  2. Pope John Paul II apologized for the crusades(implying they were immoral)
  3. Therefore, Papal infallibility is false
  4. Therefore, Catholicism is false.
–Thanks in advance!
Myth 7: Pope John Paul II apologized for the Crusades.

This is an odd myth, given that the pope was so roundly criticized for failing to apologize directly for the Crusades when he asked forgiveness from all those that Christians had unjustly harmed. It is true that John Paul recently apologized to the Greeks for the Fourth Crusade’s sack of Constantinople in 1204. But the pope at the time, Innocent III, expressed similar regret. That, too, was a tragic misfire that Innocent had done everything he could to avoid.

ignatiusinsight.com/features2005/tmadden_crusademyths_feb05.asp

(BEGIN VIDEO CLIP)

POPE JOHN PAUL II: We humbly ask for forgiveness for the part that each of us with his or her behaviors has played in such evils thus contributing to disrupting the face of the church. At the same time, as we confess our sins let us forgive the faults committed by others towards us.

(END VIDEO CLIP)
archives.cnn.com/TRANSCRIPTS/0003/12/sm.06.html
 
Papal Condemnation (Sentence) of Galileo
(June 22, 1633)
Whereas you, Galileo, son of the late Vaincenzo Galilei, Florentine, aged seventy years, were in the year 1615 denounced to this Holy Office for holding as true the false doctrine taught by some that the Sun is the center of the world and immovable and that the Earth moves, and also with a diurnal motion; for having disciples to whom you taught the same doctrine; for holding correspondence with certain mathematicians of Germany concerning the same; for having printed certain letters, entitled “On the Sunspots,” wherein you developed the same doctrine as true; and for replying to the objections from the Holy Scriptures, which from time to time were urged against it, by glossing the said Scriptures according to your own meaning: and whereas there was thereupon produced the copy of a document in the form of a letter, purporting to be written by you to one formerly your disciple, and in this divers propositions are set forth, following the position of Copernicus, which are contrary to the true sense and authority of Holy Scripture:
This Holy Tribunal being therefore of intention to proceed against the disorder and mischief thence resulting, which went on increasing to the prejudice of the Holy Faith, by command of His Holiness and of the Most Eminent Lords Cardinals of this supreme and universal Inquisition, the two propositions of the stability of the Sun and the motion of the Earth were by the theological Qualifiers qualified as follows:
The proposition that the Sun is the center of the world and does not move from its place is absurd and false philosophically and formally heretical, because it is expressly contrary to Holy Scripture.
The proposition that the Earth is not the center of the world and immovable but that it moves, and also with a diurnal motion, is equally absurd and false philosophically and theologically considered at least erroneous in faith.
But whereas it was desired at that time to deal leniently with you, it was decreed at the Holy Congregation held before His Holiness on the twenty-fifth of February, 1616, that his Eminence the Lord Cardinal Bellarmine should order you to abandon altogether the said false doctrine and, in the event of your refusal, that an injunction should be imposed upon you by the Commissary of the Holy Office to give up the said doctrine and not to teach it to others, not to defend it, nor even to discuss it; and your failing your acquiescence in this injunction, that you should be imprisoned. In execution of this decree, on the following day at the palace of and in the presence of the Cardinal Bellarmine, after being gently admonished by the said Lord Cardinal, the command was enjoined upon you by the Father Commissary of the Holy Office of that time, before a notary and witnesses, that you were altogether to abandon the said false opinion and not in the future to hold or defend or teach it in any way whatsoever, neither verbally nor in writing; and upon your promising to obey, you were dismissed.
Source: Giorgio de Santillana, The Crime of Galileo (University of Chicago Press 1955), pp. 306-310.
law.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/galileo/condemnation.html

another source of the mintues,

The Pontifical decrees against the motion of the earth : considered in their bearing on the theory of advanced ultramontanism (1870)
archive.org/details/cu31924029392168
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top